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70 Days Prelims Quiz 2019 Current Quiz 2019 Latest Posts Popular Static Quiz 2019
70 Days WAR Plan
Test-1 Full-Length Mock Test [70 Days WAR Plan]
This is the first Full-Length Mock Test under 70 Days War Plan. It contains 100 MCQs. Each carry 2 marks.
By IT's Core Team
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IASToppers Prelims 2019 Daily MCQs is based on the Hindu, PIB, Indian Express, Business Standard, TOI, LiveMint and other news sources.
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
Que-1
Consider the following statements regarding Satpura mountain ranges:
The eastern portion of the ranges receives more rainfall.
Satpura range meets the Chotanagpur Plateau in the east.
Its western portion have moist deciduous forests ecoregion.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Its eastern portion have moist deciduous forests ecoregion while western part has dry deciduous forest region.
Enrich Your Learning:
Satpura Mountain Range
Satpura range is a series of seven mountains ('Sat' = seven and 'pura' = mountains)
It runs in an east-west direction south of the Vindhyas and in between the Narmada and the Tapi, roughly parallel to these rivers.
The Satpura Range is a range of hills in central India.
The range rises in eastern Gujarat state running east through the border of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh to the east till Chhattisgarh.
The range parallels the Vindhya Range to the north, and these two east-west ranges divide Indian Subcontinent into the Indo-Gangetic plain of northern India and the Deccan Plateau of the south.
It stretches for a distance of about 900 km.
Parts of the Satpuras have been folded and upheaved. They are regarded as structural uplift or 'horst'.
The Narmada River originates from north-eastern end of Satpura and runs in the depression between the Satpura and Vindhya ranges, draining the northern slope of the Satpura range, running west towards the Arabian Sea.
The Tapti River originates in the eastern-central part of Satpura, crossing the range in the center and running west at the range's southern slopes before meeting the Arabian Sea at Surat, draining the central and southern slopes of the range.
The Godavari River and its tributaries drain the Deccan plateau, which lies south of the range, and the Mahanadi River drains the easternmost portion of the range. The Godavari and Mahanadi rivers flow into the Bay of Bengal.
At its eastern end, the Satpura range meets the hills of the Chotanagpur Plateau.
The Satpura Range is a horst mountain and is flanked by Narmada Graben in the north and much smaller but parallel Tapi Graben in the south.
Dhupgarh (1,350 m) near Pachmarhi on Mahadev Hills is the highest peak.
Amarkantak (1,127 m) is another important peak.
The eastern portion of the range receives more rainfall than the western portion, and the eastern range, together with the Eastern Ghats, constitute the eastern highlands moist deciduous forests ecoregion. The seasonally dry western portion of the range, together with the Narmada valley and the western Vindhya Range, are within the Narmada valley dry deciduous forests ecoregion.
Itai Itai disease, a disorder found in Japan, is caused by:
a) Arsenic poisoning
b) Lead poisoning
c) Cadmium poisoning
d) Mercury poisoning
Itai Itai disease, a disorder found in Japan, is caused by Cadmium poisoning.
Sources of cadmium poisoning:
Cadmium is used in nickel-cadmium batteries; these are some of the most popular and most common cadmium-based products.
Buildup of cadmium levels in the water, air, and soil has been occurring particularly in industrial areas. Environmental exposure to cadmium has been particularly problematic in Japan where many people have consumed rice that was grown in cadmium-contaminated irrigation water. This phenomenon is known as itai-itai disease.
Food is another source of cadmium. Plants may contain small or moderate amounts in non-industrial areas, but high levels may be found in the liver and kidneys of adult animals. The daily intake of cadmium through food varies by geographic region. Intake is reported to be approximately 8 to 30μg in Europe and the United States versus 59 to 113 μg in various areas of Japan.
Smoking is a significant source of cadmium exposure. Even small amounts of cadmium from smoking are highly toxic to humans, as the lungs absorb cadmium more efficiently than the stomach.
Aside from smokers, people who live near hazardous waste sites or factories that release cadmium into the air have the potential for exposure to cadmium in air. The general population and people living near hazardous waste sites may be exposed to cadmium in contaminated food, dust, or water from unregulated or accidental releases.
Workers can be exposed to cadmium in air from the smelting and refining of metals, or from the air in plants that make cadmium products such as batteries, coatings, or plastics. Workers can also be exposed when soldering or welding metal that contains cadmium.
Artists who work with cadmium pigments, which are commonly used in strong oranges, reds, and yellows, can easily accidentally ingest dangerous amounts, particularly if they use the pigments in dry form, as with chalk pastels, or in mixing their own paints.
Some sources of phosphate in fertilizers contain cadmium in amounts of up to 100 mg/kg, which can lead to an increase in the concentration of cadmium in soil. Cadmium can be removed from soil using nanopolymers.
Cadmium is a heavy metal of considerable toxicity with destructive impact on most organ systems.
Cadmium poisoning has been reported from many parts of the world.
It is one of the global health problems that affect many organs, and, in some cases, it can cause deaths annually.
It is widely distributed in humans, the chief sources of contamination being cigarette smoke, welding, and contaminated food and beverages.
Long-term exposure to cadmium through air, water, soil, and food leads to cancer and organ system toxicity such as skeletal, urinary, reproductive, cardiovascular, central and peripheral nervous, and respiratory systems.
Cadmium levels can be measured in the blood, urine, hair, nail and saliva samples.
Patients with cadmium toxicity need gastrointestinal tract irrigation, supportive care, and chemical decontamination traditional-based chelation therapy with appropriate new chelating agents and nanoparticle-based antidotes.
Furthermore, it has been likewise recommended to determine the level of food contamination and suspicious areas, consider public education and awareness programs for the exposed people to prevent cadmium poisoning.
Why was 'General Service Enlistment Act 1856' passed by Lord Canning disregards the feelings of Indian troops?
a) Sea Voyage was considered as unfaithful in Brahmin cast.
b) Wearing western clothes were against the religion of majority in Indian troops.
c) Brahmins within Indian troops were forced to eat food made by lower cast.
d) None of the above
Option a is correct.
General Service Enlistment Act 1856 passed by Lord Canning:
The General Service Enlistment Act of 1856 required recruits to serve overseas if ordered, a challenge to the castes who composed so much of the Bengal army.
It ordered all recruits of the Bengal army to be ready for service both within and outside India.
The Bengal army mainly consisted of the soldiers of high caste like Brahmin and Rajput's. Under the provisions of the Act, they could be sent overseas, and Sea Voyage was against the accepted belief of a Brahmin. So, the Indian troops considered the act as a disregard to their feeling.
Consider the following statements with respect to 'no detention policy':
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Bill, 2010 abolished the 'no detention policy' in schools.
The TSR Subramanian committee suggested that 'no detention' policy should be discontinued after Class V.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
The no-detention policy was introduced as a part of the Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) under the Right to Education Act (RTE) in 2010.
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Second Amendment) Bill, 2017
Lok Sabha has passed The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Second Amendment) Bill, 2017 to abolish the 'no detention policy' in schools.
The Bill amends the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009. The Act was having provision of no detention policy.
Highlights of the Bill:
The Bill amends provision related to no detention policy in the parent Act to empower central or state government to allow schools to hold back child in class 5, class 8, or in both classes. It mandates conducting, regular examination in class 5 and class 8 at end of every academic year.
In case, child fails class 5, class 8 examinations, he will be given additional instruction and opportunity for a re-examination (within two months from the declaration of the result). If child fails again in re-examination, he may be held back in class 5, class 8, or in both classes.
The Bill empowers Union and State governments to decide whether to not hold back child in any class till completion of elementary education. Further, Union or State governments will decide manner and conditions subject to which child may be held back.
What is no detention policy?
Under this policy, students up to class 8 are automatically promoted to the next class without being held back even if they do not get a passing grade.
The no-detention policy under the RTE Act was to ensure that no child admitted in a school shall be held back in any class or expelled from school until the completion of elementary education.
Criticism of the policy:
The policy was path-breaking but, unfortunately, it ended up being completely opposite to its original objective. There have been plenty of arguments on both sides of this policy.
The provision had attracted criticism with several states and schools complaining that it compromised on academic rigour and learning levels and quality at schools.
Expert's opinion:
The TSR Subramanian committee for formulation of the National Policy on Education has also suggested that 'no detention' policy should be discontinued after Class V. It had recommended restoration of detention provision, remedial coaching and two extra chances to each student such to move to a higher class.
A sub-committee of the Central Advisory Board of Education also studied the issue closely and recommended a provisional detention clause at Classes V and VIII. In 2013, a parliamentary panel had also asked the ministry to 'rethink' on its "policy of automatic promotion up to Class VIII".
Twenty-five States had recently agreed with the idea of doing away with or tweaking the no-detention policy — wherein a child is not detained till Class 8 — to give a boost to levels of learning.
The Centre has thus decided to allow States to take the call and to tweak the RTE Act to enable them to do so.
The Bill is expected to permit States to introduce exams in Classes 5 and 8.
Which of the following is the objective of an Initiative by Indian government called 'IMPRINT'?
a) To nurture entrepreneurship for low cost products and services
b) To give more emphasis on digital documents and reducing use of physical papers
c) To enable synchronization between Manpower and Personnel Integration in government sectors
d) To develop New Education Policy as well as Roadmap for Research
Option D is correct
IMPRINT-II
IMPacting Research, INnovation and Technology (IMPRINT), a national initiative of the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) designed to address all major engineering challenges relevant to India through an inclusive and sustainable mode of translational research has now reached its next phase, IMPRINT Round 2.
IMPRINT-2 has been approved by Government of India (GoI) with a revised strategy under which, this national initiative will be jointly funded and steered by MHRD and Department of Science and Technology (DST).
Under the IMPRINT-2, 122 new research projects have approved at a cost of Rs. 112 crore.
The new research project proposals selected include: 35 (ICT); 18 (Advanced Materials), 17 (Healthcare Technology), 12 (Energy Security); 11 (Security & Defence); 9 (Sustainable Habitat); 7 Water Resource & River Systems; 5 (Environment & Climate); 4 (Manufacturing); and 4 (Nano Technology).
IMPacting Research INnovation and Technology or IMPRINT is the first of its kind government supported initiative to address the major science and engineering challenges that India must address and champion to enable, empower and embolden the nation for inclusive growth and self-reliance.
It is a first-of-its- kind Pan-IIT and IISc joint initiative aimed at developing a roadmap for research to solve major engineering and technology challenges in selected domains needed by the country.
Which among the above gases do biogas comprise of?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Helium and Stratospheric Ozone are not greenhouse gases.
Gases resulting in to greenhouse gas effect:
A greenhouse gas is a gas that absorbs and emits radiant energy within the thermal infrared range. Increasing greenhouse gas emissions cause the greenhouse effect.
The primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide and ozone.
Without greenhouse gases, the average temperature of Earth's surface would be about −18 °C (0 °F), rather than the present average of 15 °C (59 °F).
The atmospheres of Venus, Mars and Titan also contain greenhouse gases.
Other greenhouse gases have essentially no natural sources but are side products of industrial processes or manufactured for human purposes such as cleaning agents, refrigerants, and electrical insulators. These include the fluorinated gases: chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HCFCs), Bromo fluorocarbons (halons), perfluorocarbons, PFCs, nitrogen trifluoride, NF3, and sulphur hexafluoride, SF6.
These gases contribute to atmospheric warming when they absorb infrared radiation emitted by the solar-warmed Earth and transfer their extra energy to the surrounding atmospheric gases.
Consider the following statements about the Gupta age:
Samudragupta issued as many as eight different types of coins that were indicative of his conquests and paramount power.
Mainly Lakshmi and saraswati goddesses are shown on the Gupta gold coins.
Famous story tales of Panchatantra were composed during the Gupta Era.
All the above given statements are correct.
Features of Gupta coins:
Gupta art is regarded as the high point of classical Indian art, and their coinage as among the most beautiful of ancient India.
The Gupta gold coins are known as Dinars and they are the most extraordinary examples of numismatic and artistic excellence.
The coins, in general, depicted the ruling monarch on the obverse and carried legends while the reverse depicted the figure of a goddess.
Gupta coinage started out imitating that of the mighty Kushans, but very soon had their own identity which in turn became a forerunner for the dynasties and kingdoms to come thereafter.
The flourishing state of the economy was ascertained by a large number of gold coins circulated by different Gupta rulers.
Famous for their gold coins, the Gupta numismatic art has an abundance of coins in the variety of designs.
They also issued silver coins. However, coins made of copper, bronze or any other alloy metals are scarce.
This abundance of gold coins from the Gupta era has led some scholars to regard their reign as the 'rain of gold'.
Gupta coinage reached the height of metallurgy and iconography. After Indo-Greek and Kushan coins, Gupta coinage made a huge come back with a true Indian taste in it. Being indigenous, they portrayed the king, queen, and deities with Indian attire and with lots of grace.
The coins of Samudragupta gives us a lot of information on the start of the mighty empire of Guptas, and its economy. The earliest issue bears the image of king Chandragupta-I with his queen Kumaradevi of Lichchavi family.
Though the legend is specific to Chandragupta_I, it was issued by Samudragupta inmemory of his father.
Samudragupta issued as many as 8 different types of coins for himself. They are known in numismatic terms as Standard, Archer, Battle Axe, Chandragupta-I, Kacha, Tiger, Lyrist and Asvamedha type.
They are indicative of the conquests of Samudragupta and his attainment of paramount power.
Gupta age:
The advent of the Common Era brought the rule of the illustrious Kushan and the Gupta empires.
When the mighty Kushan Empire crumbled, many small kingdoms acquired territories. One such was the Gupta dynasty.
Starting from a small kingdom in Magadha in the late 3rd century CE, the Guptas gradually extended their rule over a large part of Southern Asia. Under the able and strong leadership of many rulers, this dynasty grew and became deeply rooted in the Indian subcontinent.
The empire at its paramount included all of northern India from the Indus in the west to the Brahmaputra in the east and in the south, it extended along the eastern coast of the Indian peninsula.
The Gupta period is considered as the "Golden Age" of classical India.
This was a time when great universities flourished in Nalanda and Taxila, India made contributions in all sectors like mathematics, science, astronomy, religion etc.
The famous story tales of Panchatantra, the very popular Kama Sutra, the epics of Ramayana and Mahabharata were composed during the Gupta Era.
The White rhino is the largest land mammal after the elephant.
The IUCN Red List identifies the Black, Javan, and Sumatran rhinoceros as critically endangered.
India Rhino Vision 2020 targets to increase 2000 rhinos by the year 2020.
b) 2 only
India Rhino Vision 2020:
Launched in 2005, Indian Rhino Vision 2020 is an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of Assam by the year 2020.
It is a partnership among the Government of Assam, the International Rhino Foundation, and the World-Wide Fund for Nature, the Bodoland Territorial Council, and the U.S. Fish & World Wildlife foundation that aims to attain a population of 3,000 wild greater one-horned rhinos in seven of Assam's protected areas by the year 2020.
Rhinos are listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red list of Threatened Species.
The Indian rhino was moved from its status of endangered (since 1986) to vulnerable in 2008 by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The IUCN Red List identifies the Black, Javan, and Sumatran rhinoceros as critically endangered.
This was after a survey in 2007 by the IUCN Asian Rhino Specialist Group, which estimated that there were close to 2,575 one-horned rhinos in the wild, spread across parts of India and Nepal, with India being home to 2,200 rhinos, or over 85 per cent of the population.
India Rhino Vision 2020 targets:
Improving the protection and security of rhinos in all rhino areas in Assam.
Expanding the distribution of rhinos over seven protected areas to reduce the risks associated with having a whole population in one area.
Translocating rhinos from two source populations (Kaziranga and Pabitora) into five target protected areas (Manas, Laokhowa, Buracharpori-Kochmora, Dibrusaikhowa and Orang).
IRV2020 hopes to raise the number of rhinos in Assam to 3,000 by 2020 and spread them over seven of the state's protected areas: Kaziranga, Pobitora, Orang national park, Manas national park, Laokhowa wildlife sanctuary, Burachapori wildlife sanctuary and Dibru Saikhowa wildlife sanctuary.
Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the minimum price paid to the farmers producing:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 2 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
The FRP is the minimum price that sugar mills have to pay to sugarcane farmers.
Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP)
It is supposed to signal to farmers the need to plant more or less cane for the coming year.
The FRP is determined on basis of recommendations of Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and after consultation with State Governments and other stake-holders.
The final FRP is arrived by taking into account various factors such as cost of production, domestic and international prices, overall demand-supply situation, inter-crop price parity, terms of trade prices of primary by-products and its impact on general price level and resource use efficiency.
Question 10 of 100
10. Question
Que-10
In the context of Harshvardhana consider the following statements:
Hiuen tsang's work is the best source of information about his age.
He was defeated by Pulakeshin II.
His biography was written by Bhasa.
His biography was written by Banabhatta.
The age of Harshavardhana:
Harsha also known as Harshavardhana, was an Indian emperor who ruled North India from 606 to 647 CE.
Harsh ascended the throne at a young age of 16. He made Kanauj his capital because he thought that Kanauj being centrally located, would help him to control his empire better.
He was a member of the Vardhana dynasty; and was the son of Prabhakar vardhana who defeated the Alchon Huna invaders, and the younger brother of Rajya vardhana, a king of Thanesar, present-day Haryana.
At the height of Harsha's power, his Empire covered much of North and North-western India, extended East till Kamarupa, and South until Narmada River; and eventually made Kannauj (in present Uttar Pradesh state) his capital and ruled till 647 CE.
Harsha was defeated by the south Indian Emperor Pulakeshin II of the Chalukya dynasty, when Harsha tried to expand his Empire into the southern peninsula of India.
Pulakeshin entered into a treaty with Harsha, with the Narmada River designated as the border between the Chalukya Empire and that of Harshavardhana.
The peace and prosperity that prevailed made his court a centre of cosmopolitanism, attracting scholars, artists and religious visitors from far and wide.
The Chinese traveller Xuanzang visited the court of Harsha and wrote a very favourable account of him, praising his justice and generosity. According to hiuen tsang's work, there was no forced labour and families were not registered.
His biography Harshacharita ("Deeds of Harsha") written by Sanskrit poet Banabhatta, describes his association with Thanesar, besides mentioning the defence wall, a moat and the palace with a two-storied Dhavalagriha (white mansion).
The Nalanda Unversity prospered during the reign of Harsha. Harsha gave grants to both Hindus and Buddhists but later became more inclined towards Buddhism.
Harsha was tolerant towards all religions. He organized many religious assemblies.
The society was divided into many castes and sub-castes.
Agriculture was the main occupation of the people.
In context of fundamental physical constants, what does the 'Planck constant' define?
a) Relevancy between the average relative kinetic energy of particles in a gas and the temperature of the gas
b) Relevancy between the energy per quantum of electromagnetic radiation to its frequency
c) Represents the magnitude of electric charge per mole of electrons
d) Constant of proportionality that exists between magnetic flux density and magnetic field strength
Option B is correct
It is the fundamental physical constant characteristic of the mathematical formulations of quantum mechanics, which describes the behaviour of particles and waves on the atomic scale, including the particle aspect of light.
Plank's constant describes the relevancy between the energy per quantum (photon) of electromagnetic radiation to its frequency.
The German physicist Max Planck introduced the constant in 1900 in his accurate formulation of the distribution of the radiation emitted by a blackbody, or perfect absorber of radiant energy.
The energy E of each quantum, or each photon, equals Planck's constant h times the radiation frequency symbolized by the Greek letter nu, ν, or simply E = hν.
Planck's constant is defined as the elementary quantum of action.
Its value in metre-kilogram-second units is 6.62607004 × 10−34 joule?second.
Planck's Equation
Max Planck discovered a theory that energy is transferred in the form of chunks called as quanta, assigning as h.
The variable h holds the constant value based on International System of units and the variable describes the frequency in sec. The Planck's law helps to calculate the energy of photons when their frequency is known.
Planck's Law:
It states that electromagnetic radiation from heated bodies is not emitted as a continuous flow but is made up of discrete units or quanta of energy, the size of which involve a fundamental physical constant (Planck's constant).
Lok Sabha recently passed Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill, 2018. Which of the below given statements is/are NOT true in this regard?
It defines fugitive economic offender as a person who has committed crime under scheduled offence.
It gives government the right to confiscate property of the offender located in India only.
It is applicable in cases where total value involved is Rs.500 crore or more.
The government can confiscate the property in India and abroad also.
Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill, 2018:
The bill aims to tighten the noose on the wilful defaulters who tends to abscond the nation to evade the clutches of the law.
The bill will replace an ordinance promulgated by President in April 2018.
The bill defines fugitive economic offender (FEO) as any individual against whom warrant for arrest in relation to scheduled offence (enlisted in this law) has been issued by any court in India, but he leaves or has left India to avoid criminal prosecution or refuses to return to India to face criminal prosecution.
The onus is on authorities to prove that an individual is a fugitive economic offender. It gives government right to confiscate property of such economic offenders in India and abroad. Its provisions are also be applicable on proxy-owned properties of economic offenders.
It is applicable in cases where total value involved in such economic offences is Rs.100 crore or more. It keeps banks and other financial institutions at Centre and provide help to them recover amount.
It establishes Special Court under the Prevention of Money-laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 to declare a person as FEO.
The special court will also appoint 'administrator' to oversee confiscated property. It will be responsible for disposing of confiscated property and the property will be used to satisfy creditors' claims.
It debars fugitive economic offender from defending any civil claim at the discretion of any court including High Court. If prior to the declaration, the alleged FEO returns to India and submits to the appropriate jurisdictional court, proceedings under this Act will cease by law.
Light can travel in straight lines as well as bends (or diffracts) around an object. Which of the following property of light describes above phenomena?
a) Total Internal reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Dual Nature
d) Interference
Option C is correct
Dual nature of light
Light has a dual nature sometimes it behaves like a particle (called a photon), which explains how light travels in straight lines and sometimes it behaves like a wave, which explains how light bends (or diffracts) around an object.
How does light exhibit traits of a particle?
Light travels in the form of waves. Two light beams will pass through each other and emerge unchanged.
Einstein's theory provided an explanation. Einstein argued that if light was composed of "bundles", or photons; when a photon strikes the metal's surface, its energy was transferred to the electron – much like when two billiard balls collide. This was the ultimate evidence for light's particle nature.
When light weakened to an extreme brightness limit and projected on a screen is detected, it behaves like a particle.
How does light exhibit traits of a wave?
Light travels in the form of bundles or packets of energy called photons. This is sometimes called the particle nature of light.
Light will be reflected from a solid mirror surface.
When the recorded particle counts increases on screen, an interference fringe appears that shows light also behaves as a wave.
Based on Einstein's light quantum hypothesis, the duality of the photon was confirmed quantum-mechanical experiments and examination.
The photon is now regarded as a particle in fields related to the interaction of material with light that is absorbed and emitted; and regarded as a wave in regions relating to light propagation.
Among the four forces constituting the universe, the photon serves to convey electromagnetic force. The other three forces are gravitational force, strong force, and weak force.
Consider the following statements related to Meghalayan Age:
It corresponds to the geological history of earth.
It began when a drought devastated ancient agricultural civilisations from Egypt to China.
It is defined as the new stage of the Holocene Epoch.
Solution & Enrich Your Learning:
Geologists divide the 4.6-billion-year existence of Earth into distinct periods. Each period corresponds to significant events such as the break-up of continents, shifts in climate, and the emergence of particular types of animals and plant life.
These units of the geologic time scale are based on sedimentary strata that have accumulated over time and contain within them sediment types, fossils and chemical isotopes that record the passage of time as well as the physical and biological events that produced them.
About Meghalayan Age:
Scientists at International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS) have created a new phase in Earth's geological history and named it Meghalayan, after a stalagmite from a cave in the Indian state of Meghalaya that helped define climatic events 4,200 years ago, marking the beginning of the phase that continues till today.
The Meghalayan Age began with a mega global drought that devastated ancient agricultural civilisations from Egypt to China.
It is part of a longer period known as the Holocene Epoch, which reflects everything that has happened over the past 11,700 years.
Evidence of the climatic event has been found in sediments on all seven continents, including those from Meghalaya.
The Meghalayan is unique because it is the first interval in Earth's geological history that coincided with a major cultural event, as agricultural societies struggled to recover from the shift in climate.
The droughts over a 200-year period resulted in human migrations in Egypt, Greece, Syria, Palestine, Mesopotamia, the Indus valley and the Yangtze river valley.
Besides Meghalayan Age, two other ages — the Middle Holocene Northgrippian Age and the Early Holocene Greenlandian Age — with beginnings defined at climatic events that happened about 8,300 years and 11,700 years ago, respectively, were also approved by the International Commission on Stratigraphy, which is responsible for standardising the geologic time scale.
It is defined as the new stages of the Holocene Epoch/Series and thus the three new corresponding ages of the Holocene Epoch allows for an update to the International Chronostratigraphic Chart, which depicts the timeline for the Earth's full geologic history.
In context of Digambaras sect of Jainism, consider the following statements:
They differ in the details of the life of Mahavira from Shvetambers.
They are not allowed any possessions except begging bowl.
They rejected all possibilities of any Tirthankara being women.
Digambara monks are not allowed any possessions, not even begging bowls and so can only receive gifts in their cupped hands.
Digambaras sect of Jainism:
Jains are divided into two major sects; the Digambara (meaning sky clad) sect and the Svetambara (meaning white clad) sect. Each of these sects is also divided into subgroups.
The two sects agree on the basics of Jainism, but disagree on:
Details of the life of Mahavira
The spiritual status of women
Whether monks should wear clothes
Which texts should be accepted as scripture
The Digambara sect is more austere and is closer in its ways to the Jains at the time of Mahavira.
Both groups accept the basic Jain philosophy and the five basic vows. The philosophical differences between the groups mostly affect monks and nuns, or the very pious.
Digambaras believe that women cannot achieve liberation without first being reborn as a man. This is because women cannot live a truly ascetic life, because they have to possess clothes since it is impractical for them to live naked and women are intrinsically harmful.
Digambara monks live completely naked. This is because Digambaras believe that one can only lead the life of a true monk.
Nuns of both groups are clothed.
Terapanth Digambara worship is simpler than Svetambara worship.
Digambara images of tirthankaras have downcast eyes
Digambara images are plain (and always carved as naked figures)
The monks carry picchi, a broom made up of fallen peacock feathers (for clearing the place before walking or sitting), kamandalu (a water container made of wood), and shastra (scripture).
One of the most important scholar-monks of Digambara tradition was Kundakunda. He authored Prakrit texts such as the Samayas?ra and the Pravacanas?ra. Other prominent Acharyas of this tradition were, Virasena (author of a commentary on the Dhavala), Samantabhadra and Siddhasena Divakara.
The Satkhandagama and Kasayapahuda have major significance in the Digambara tradition.
In context of 'Aerogel material', consider the following:
Aerogels are known as "frozen smoke" because of their ghostly blue look.
It exhibits extreme low densities and thermal conductivity.
Aerogels are made up of paraffin wax blended with carbon nanoparticles.
Aerogels can be made of a wide variety of substances, including:
Silica, the transition metal oxides, lanthanide and actinide metal oxides, several main group metal oxides, organic polymers, biological polymers, semiconductor nanostructures, carbon, carbon nanotubes and metals.
Aerogels
Aerogels are the world's lightest solid materials, composed of up to 99.98% air by volume.
Aerogels are a diverse class of porous, solid materials that exhibit an uncanny array of extreme materials properties.
An aerogel is the dry, low-density, porous, solid framework of a gel isolated in-tact from the gel's liquid component.
Aerogels are breathable and fireproof, and it absorbs both oil and water.
It exhibits lowest optical index of refraction, lowest speed of sound through a material and lowest dielectric constant.
Transparent super insulating silica aerogels exhibit the lowest thermal conductivity of any solid known.
Carbon aerogels have properties like fast-charging super-capacitors. They are good electricity conductors.
Bendable x-aerogels are the lowest-density structural materials.
It takes an extraordinary amount of time and money, in part because only a very small amount of aerogel is made in each batch.
A high price tag of about $1.00 per cubic centimetre. Aerogel is currently more expensive than gold.
Which of the following country recently allowed commercial cultivation of the world's first genetically modified (GM) sugarcane?
a) Argentina
b) Brazil
c) Uruguay
d) China
Option B is correct.
Sequencing of sugarcane genome
Due to their large complex polyploid genomes, it is difficult to sequence saccharum species.
It was an international team coordinated by CIRAD that achieved this milestone.
Sugarcane was the last major cultivated plant to have its genome sequenced.
This was because of its huge complexity due to the extreme level of polyploidy.
The genome comprises between 10 and 12 copies of each chromosome, when the human genome has just two.
It will now be possible to "modernize" the methods used to breed sugarcane varieties. This will be a real boon to the sugar and biomass industry.
Sequencing Method:
Advancing DNA sequencing technologies and strategies for genome assembly are making the sugarcane genome more tractable.
Advances in long read sequencing have allowed the generation of a more complete set of sugarcane gene transcripts.
This is supporting transcript profiling in genetic research. The progenitor genomes are being sequenced.
The complete polyploid genome is sequenced and assembled.
The emerging genome will allow comparison of related genomes and increase understanding of the functioning of this polyploidy system.
Benefits from sequencing:
Sugarcane is a known water-guzzling crop. If genetic sequences linked to enduring water stress are known, breeders can find a way to incorporate them in their breeding programmes to develop varieties that require lesser water.
This is a major breakthrough, since almost 80% of the world's sugar comes from sugarcane.
the theoretical limit on the sucrose content of sugarcane is currently around 25 per cent. If breeders can breach this limit, they can raise varieties that are better yielding.
The newly-acquired insights into sugarcane genome can help develop new molecular screening techniques that could hasten field trials of newer varieties.
The reference sequence can come in handy in analysing and comparing variations between various sugarcane varieties more effectively.
The plant has also recently become a frontrunner in the race to produce biomass.
Sugarcane breeding for traditional sugar and new energy and biomaterial uses will be enhanced by the availability of these genomic resources.
Key Fact:
Brazil, which has the largest area in the world under sugarcane, recently allowed commercial cultivation of the world's first GM sugarcane.
India doesn't currently allow GM food crops.
MicroDots technology is associated with automobile industry.
MicroDots technology will be used to check the pollution.
The technology will be used to check the vehicle thefts.
MicroDots technology:
In this technique, thousands of small dots laser etched will be sprayed with a vehicle identification number on all over the vehicle's body. This will also include their engines. This technology is termed as MicroDots and it is almost impossible to remove these dots.
The auto-lifters take out the engines along with the other valuable parts and thereafter, they destroy the vehicle. Thus, most of the vehicles stolen go untraced.
In a move to put a check on vehicle thefts, the government will soon notify a new standard for automobile industry to use a MicroDots technology.
The government's highest automobile technical standard making body, CMVR-TSC, will finalise the norm.
Once the MicroDots technology stabilises and there is greater demand, the industry would adopt this as a norm.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Alauddin Khalji?
He ruled major parts of Afghanistan till Bihar and from Kashmir till Karnataka.
His victories forced Kakatiya and Hoysala kings to become Alauddin's tributaries.
He levied extra cess on the farmers and peasants and thereby collecting large amount of tax.
He allowed Ulemas to retain their superior position in the field of religion and education.
Alauddin Khalji helped the farmers and peasants and levied no extra cess on them.
Alauddin Khalji:
Alauddin Khalji (1296–1316) was the second and the most powerful ruler of the Khalji dynasty that ruled the Delhi Sultanate in the Indian subcontinent.
Alauddin wished to become the second Alexander (Sikander-e -Sani), and this title of his was mentioned on coins and public prayers.
Born as Ali Gurshasp, Alauddin was a nephew and a son-in-law of his predecessor Jalaluddin.
At the heights of his power, the Khilji dynasty ruled major parts of Afghanistan till Bihar and from Kashmir till Karnataka.
When Jalaluddin became the Sultan of Delhi after deposing the Mamluks, Alauddin was given the position of Amir-i-Tuzuk (equivalent to master of ceremonies).
Alauddin obtained the governorship of Kara in 1291 after suppressing a revolt against Jalaluddin, and the governorship of Awadh in 1296 after a profitable raid on Bhilsa.
In 1296, Alauddin raided Devagiri, and acquired loot to stage a successful revolt against Jalaluddin.
After killing Jalaluddin, he consolidated his power in Delhi, and subjugated Jalaluddin's sons in Multan.
Over the next few years, Alauddin successfully fended off the Mongol invasions from the Chagatai Khanate, at Jaran-Manjur (1297–1298), Sivistan (1298), Kili (1299), Delhi (1303), and Amroha (1305). In 1306, his forces achieved a decisive victory against the Mongols near the Ravi riverbank, and in the subsequent years, his forces ransacked the Mongol territories in present-day Afghanistan.
The military commanders that successfully led his army against the Mongols include Zafar Khan, Ulugh Khan, and his slave-general Malik Kafur.
Alauddin conquered the kingdoms of Gujarat (raided in 1299 and annexed in 1304), Ranthambore (1301), Chittor (1303), Malwa (1305), Siwana (1308), and Jalore (1311).
These victories ended several Hindu dynasties, including the Paramaras, the Vaghelas, the Chahamanas of Ranastambhapura and Jalore, the Rawal branch of the Guhilas, and possibly the Yajvapalas.
His slave-general Malik Kafur led multiple campaigns to the south of the Vindhyas, obtaining a considerable amount of wealth from Devagiri (1308), Warangal (1310) and Dwarasamudra (1311). Kafur also raided the Pandya kingdom (1311), obtaining a large number of treasures, elephants and horses.
These victories forced the Yadava king Ramachandra, the Kakatiya king Prataparudra, and the Hoysala king Ballala III to become Alauddin's tributaries.
At times, he exploited Muslim fanaticism against Hindu chieftains and the treatment of the zimmis.
He rarely heeded to the orthodox ulema but believed "that the Hindu will never be submissive and obedient to the Musalman." He undertook measures to impoverish them and felt it was justified because he knew the Hindu chiefs and muqaddams led a luxurious life but didn't pay a jital in taxes.
Under the Mamluks, Indian Muslims and Hindus were deprived of positions in higher bureaucracy.
However, Amir Khusrau mentions a Hindu officer of his army despatched to repel the Mongols. In addition, many non-Muslims served in his army.
He also defended India from the ravaging Mongols who controlled most of Asia back then. Mongols were utterly ruthless, divided into different tribes and attacked countries from multiple places. They were known for their brutality. Khilji kept India, its culture and its people safe from the Mongols.
He also took large scale administrative reforms in the field of revenue, market, military and social reforms.
He helped the farmers and peasants of India. He levied no extra cess on the farmers and cut zamindars and landowners out of the loop from the tax system. He directly collected tax from the farmers and that left them free from the hands of zamindars. He also kept a large standing army ranging from hundreds of thousands. He also banned drinking, gambling and drug consumption from the public view in the later years of his life.
During the last years of his life, Alauddin suffered from an illness, and relied on Malik Kafur to handle the administration.
After his death in 1316, Malik Kafur appointed Shihabuddin, son of Alauddin and his Hindu wife Jhatyapali, as a puppet monarch. However, his elder son Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah seized the power shortly after his death.
He died in January 1316 in Delhi and is buried in the Qutub Complex in Mehrauli, Delhi.
Consider the following statements related to National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research:
It maintains India's Antarctic research station, Maitri.
It comes under Ministry of Earth Sciences.
It established a high altitude research station in Himalaya called HIMANSH.
All of the above given statements are correct.
About National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR):
The National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research is an Indian research and development institution, situated in Vasco, Goa.
It is an autonomous Institution of the Department of Ocean Development (DOD), Government of India.
It is responsible for administering the Indian Antarctic Program and maintains the Indian Government's Antarctic research station, Maitri.
At present, NCAOR is an agency working under Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India since 2006, by the notification of the President of India.
NCAOR complex is a home to a special low-temperature laboratory and is setting up a National Antarctic Data Centre and a Polar Museum.
India's National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR) is in talks with Canada and Russia, key countries with presence in the Arctic circle, to establish new observation systems.
Climate change was a decisive factor in India re-thinking priorities. Sea ice at the Arctic has been melting rapidly — the fastest in this century. That means several spots, rich in hydrocarbon reserves, will be more accessible through the year via alternative shipping routes.
Currently, India has only one Arctic observation station near Norway.
The government has renamed the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR) as the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research.
India is already an observer at the Arctic Council — a forum of countries that decides on managing the region's resources and popular livelihood.
In 2015, set up an underground observatory, called IndARC, at the Kongsfjorden fjord, half way between Norway and the North Pole.
India has already established a high-altitude research station in the Himalayas, called HIMANSH, at Spiti, Himachal Pradesh.
'Hawk-Eye Technology' is used primarily for which of the following purpose?
a) Data Segregation technology in IT field
b) To analyze decisions in various sports
c) GPS based wildlife animal tracking to support animal behavioural analyses
d) Military spy operations
There are far more than six technologies that have changed the sports world including GPS golf balls, carbon fiber skis and snowboards, computer software for fitness monitoring etc.
Hawk-Eye Technology:
This technology uses 6-7 high-end cameras situated above the field of play to analyse the fight and trajectory of an object being used in sports competition.
Most commonly used in tennis, cricket, rugby and volleyball, Hawk-Eye Technology has been in use since 2006 in tennis and is more accurate than a judge's eye.
Benefits of this technology:
Helps to take an error-free decision
It has reduced the criticism of the players and spectators about the decision of the match referee.
HANS device:
The HANS (Head and Neck Support) device used in motorsports is a U-shaped device which is placed behind the neck and its two arms are placed over the pectoral muscles of the chest.
It is only connected to the helmet by two anchors on each side and supported by the shoulders.
A HANS device keeps the head from whipping forwards and backward in a crash, while also preventing excessive twisting movements.
Video Technology:
The epic Olympic hockey battle between USA and USSR, won in epic fashion by the US, was on tape delay, ending over an hour before the TV broadcast started.
The experience of watching sports has changed dramatically for the better by Video Technology.
Everything is live, and not just on home TV, but on smartphone, tablet, and the overhead screen in public places.
Wearable Computers:
Wearable computers allow for real-time tracking of an athlete's health.
It supervises pulse rate, hydration, and temperature through its wireless and microscopic health monitoring system.
The incidents of dehydration, heart attacks and worse, have dramatically decreased by using this device.
Prosthetic Devices for Disabled Athletes:
People with disabilities, or lost limbs, never had a chance to compete, but with the advancement of prosthetic technology more and more physically disabled are competing like before.
Athletes are placed in body suits embedded with motion sensors.
The athletes then go through a series of drills based around athletic movement, the cameras and the wearable tech report back on their movements.
The prosthetic design process begins after this motion study, which in the end creates a custom prosthetic that moves with their body.
Ingestible Thermometer Pills:
When Ingestible Thermometer Pills are swollen, it moves around the gastrointestinal tract and transmits vital information of the body to medical personnel.
So if there is any problem in athlete's body, it can be solved before any accident.
It will help to minimize death from heat exhaustion which is the second most common reason for athlete fatalities.
Which rulers participated in the renovation of Sudarshana lake situated in Gujarat?
Skandgupta
Chandra Gupta Maurya
Rudradaman I
Chandra Gupta Maurya was the one who build the Sudarshana lake.
Sudarshan lake in Gujarat:
Chandra Gupta Maurya constructed the Sudarshan lake at Junagarh.
The Junagarh inscription gives the information about the Sudarshan lake that the lake was an artificial reservoir, was built by the Mauryan emperors for checking floods.
The soils and seasons had been classified and meteorological observations of rainfall charted for the different regions of the Mauryan empire, which comprised nearly the whole subcontinent as well as territory to the northwest.
A special department of the state supervised the construction and maintenance of the irrigation system, including the dam and conduits at Sudarshan, a man-made lake on the Kathiawar Peninsula.
Around 150 A.D, the lake was repaired by the Shaka ruler Rudradaman I, and, it was again repaired under the Skandgupta's reign (415 AD- 455AD) by his govemor Parnadatta.
Consider the following statements related to Public Affairs Index (PAI):
It covers themes like environment, fiscal management and economic freedom.
It is released by NITI Aayog.
Kerala has topped PAI 2018 as the best-governed state.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Public Affairs Index (PAI) is released by Bengaluru base Public Affairs Centre (PAC), a not for profit think tank.
Public Affairs Index (PAI) 2018:
The Public Affairs Index (PAI) is released since in 2016 by Bengaluru base Public Affairs Centre (PAC), a not for profit think tank which aims to improve governance in India.
It is based on 10 themes, 30 focus subjects and 100 indicators, relying solely upon government data.
It covers wide range of themes such as support to human development, social protection, essential infrastructure, women and children, crime, law and order, delivery of justice, transparency and accountability, environment, fiscal management and economic freedom.
2018 PAI also included separate index on children of India, giving measure of how child-friendly each of the states are.
Highlights of the survey:
Kerala has topped PAI as the best-governed state for the third consecutive year since 2016 among large states.
Kerala is followed by Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Karnataka and Gujarat.
Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand and Bihar ranked the lowest, indicating higher social and economic inequalities in the states.
Himachal Pradesh topped the list followed by Goa, Mizoram, Sikkim and Tripura. Nagaland, Manipur and Meghalaya were ranked at bottom of the index among small states (with population less than two crore).
In the index on children of India, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh and Mizoram topped the index.
With reference to Wireless communication technology inside cell phones, consider the following statements:
Phone conversations were digitally encrypted (SMS) from 2G (2ndGeneration) technologies.
2G networks uses digital radio signals instead of analogue signals.
The 3G standard mandates the use of Internet Protocol (IP) for data traffic.
Which of the above statements is/are correct
Option A is correct
Wireless communication technology inside cell phones and other mobile devices has evolved over several decades.
The G in "1G" or "5G" stands for generation and the number is just a representation of the evolution of technology.
There has been a lot of advancements in the field of wireless network communication over the years in terms of overall development and change in core functionality.
1st Generation:
It refers to the first generation of wireless telephone technology.
There never was something called as 1G at first. It basically was a network with only voice call capabilities and only got the name 1G after 2G was put to use.
The radio signals used by 1G network are analog. It was introduced in 1979.
2nd Generation:
The era lasted for quite a while from 1980's to 2003. 2G networks used digital radio signals.
It provided three primary benefits over their predecessors.
Phone conversations are digitally encrypted (SMS)
2G systems are significantly more efficient on the spectrum allowing for far greater mobile phone penetration levels.
2G introduced data services for mobile.
There were a few advancements made within the spectrum itself such as GSM, GPRS and EDGE.
3rd Generation:
3G had and has speed capabilities of up to 2 mbps. It enabled smartphones to provide faster communication, send/receive large emails and texts, provide fast web browsing, video streaming and more security amongst others.
It was widely based on CDMA2000 (Code-division multiple access) and EDGE technologies.
It enabled multiple channels to communicate at one same thus improvising on the over speed and connectivity.
4th Generation:
The 4G standard sets several requirements for mobile networks including mandating the use of Internet Protocol (IP) for data traffic and minimum data rates of 100 Mbps.
The huge jump from the 2 mbps for 3G is often referred to as MAGIC:
M – Mobile multimedia
A – Anytime anywhere
G – Global mobility support
I – Integrated wireless solution
C – Customized personal service
It fulfils the standards of International Mobile Telecommunications-Advanced (IMT-Advanced).
Soon after 4G, 4G LTE was introduced. LTE stands for Long Term Evolution and it isn't as much a technology as it is the path followed to achieve 4G speeds.
It is still quite in its early stages and the technology likely to appear in the market only by 2020 at the earliest.
Goals for future 5G include significantly faster speeds (a minimum of 1 Gbps and perhaps up to 10 Gbps) plus lower power requirements to better support new Internet of Things (IoT) devices.
It will have capabilities to provide faster dialling speeds, multiple device connectivity, higher data speeds.
Consider the following statements regarding International Solar Alliance (ISA):
It is a joint initiative between India and Germany.
It is launched on sidelines of COP21 UN Climate Change Conference.
It is headquartered in India.
ISA is initiative jointly launched by India and France in November 2015 at Paris.
About International Solar Alliance (ISA):
ISA is initiative jointly launched by India and France in November 2015 at Paris on side lines of COP21 UN Climate Change Conference.
Its Framework Agreement came into force in December 2017. It celebrated its founding day on 11th March 2018.
It is headquartered at campus of Natioanl Institute of Solar Energy (NISE), Gurugram, Harayana, making it first international intergovernmental treaty-based organization to be headquartered in India.
Undertake joint efforts required to reduce the cost of finance and the cost of technology
Mobilize more than US $1000 billion of investments needed by 2030 for massive deployment of solar energy
Pave way for future technologies adapted to needs of solar rich 121 countries lying fully or partially between Tropic of Cancer and Capricon.
ISA presently has 4 ongoing programmes
Scaling Solar Mini Grids
Affordable Finance at Scale,
Scaling Solar Applications for Agricultural Use,
Scaling Solar Rooftop catering to the needs of solar energy in specific areas
Which of the following is the objective of 'SENSAGRI project' launched by Ministry of Agriculture?
a) To assist buyers interested in agronomy data and land acquisition which will be created by more than 4,000 electronic field records (EFRs).
b) To improve the present systems of acquiring and generating Geographic Information System (GIS) agriculture and resources data.
c) To provide the opportunities of block chain-based technology in agricultural insurance systems, land registration and in agricultural supply chains.
d) To implement Hyperspectral Remote technology using drone systems and developing a locally researched prototype for soil health monitoring.
SENSAGRI (SENsor based Smart AGRIculture)
The Indian government has launched a collaborative research project involving use of drone technology in farming sector for assessing quality of soil and compensation for losses due to flood.
The project has been launched under the Ministry of Agriculture.
The objective of this project is to develop indigenous prototype for drone based crop and soil health monitoring system using hyperspectral remote sensing (HRS) sensors.
This technology could also be integrated with satellite-based technologies for large scale applications.
The project aims to implement Hyperspectral Remote Sensing using drone systems and developing a locally researched prototype for soil health monitoring and integrating it with satellites for large scale agricultural applications in the future.
Drone technology based unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) could be used for smooth scouting over farm fields, gathering precise information and transmitting the data on real time basis.
This technology will be used primarily in farming sector at regional/local levels for assessing land and crop health; extent, type and severity of damage, issuing forewarning, and settlement of compensation under crop insurance schemes.
NASA recently launched 'Remote Sensing Toolkit' to:
a) Measure Spaceborne Thermal Radiometer Experiment on Space Station.
b) Promote commercial use of satellite data
c) Observe the UV radiation effect on satellites.
d) Design the geothermal map of Earth.
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has launched 'Remote Sensing Toolkit' to promote commercial use of satellite data.
About Remote Sensing Toolkit:
It is an online toolkit that aims to make it easier for users to find, analyse and utilise relevant satellite data for their research, business projects or conservation efforts.
It has been designed to help users search for data, as well as utilize ready-to-use tools and code to build new tools.
It provides simple system that quickly identifies relevant sources based on user input. It makes finding and using NASA satellite data easier than ever before.
It aims to spark innovation among entrepreneurial community and lead to further commercialisation of NASA technology.
The toolkit was launched as part of NASA's Technology Transfer program.
What is NASA's Technology Transfer program?
The program offers open remote-sensing data benefiting scientific community, other government agencies and non-profit organizations.
The program ensures technologies developed for missions in exploration and discovery are broadly available to the public, maximising the benefit to the nation.
Consider the following statements with regard to Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY):
It is a small deposit scheme for a girl child.
The account opened under the scheme will be valid for 21 years from the date of opening.
Premature withdrawal will only be allowed for the purpose of higher education.
Premature withdrawal will also be allowed if the girl intends to get married.
About Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY):
Launched in 2015, Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) is a small deposit scheme for the girl child launched as a part of the 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' campaign.
Under the scheme, a parent or legal guardian can open an account in the name of the girl child until she attains the age of ten years.
The account can be opened in any post office branch and designated public sector banks.
Terms under the scheme:
A parent can open only one account per girl child, and a maximum of two such bank accounts in the name of two girl children. In case of twin girls as second birth, or if the first birth itself results in the birth of three girl children, three bank accounts can be opened in the name of three girl children.
After the recent change, the minimum deposit that needs to be made every year is Rs 250 and the maximum amount that can be deposited in a year is Rs 1.5 lakh.
There is no limit on the number of deposits either in a month or in a financial year.
The account opened under the scheme will be valid for 21 years from the date of opening, after which it will mature, and the money will be paid to the girl child in whose name the account is opened.
If the account is not closed after maturity, the balance amount will continue to earn interest as specified for the scheme from time to time.
The account will also automatically close if the girl child gets married before the completion of the tenure of 21 years.
Deposits can be made up to 14 years from the date of opening of the account. After this period the account will only earn interest as per applicable rates.
Premature withdrawal – withdrawing money before the completion of the maturity period of 21 years – can only be made by the girl child in whose name the account has been opened after she attains the age of 18 years.
This withdrawal will also be limited to 50 per cent of the balance standing at the end of the preceding financial year and will only be allowed for the purpose of higher education or if the girl intends to get married. In order to make a withdrawal, the account should have a deposit of at least 14 years or more.
With reference to Bio-Jet fuel, consider the following statements:
Bio-Jet fuel can be used in existing aviation jet engines without modification.
Recently, India managed to fly its first plane from Dehradun to Delhi powered by 100% Bio-jet fuel.
Recently, India managed to fly its first plane from Dehradun to Delhi with a blend of 75 per cent air turbine fuel (ATF) and 25 per cent bio-jet fuel.
Bio-Jet Fuel
Bio-jet fuel is made from vegetable oils, sugars, animal fats and even waste biomass, and can be used in existing aviation jet engines without modification.
Jatropha oil is suitable for conversion to jet fuel.
This bio-jet fuel has received wide acceptance from the airline industry.
The advantage of using bio-jet fuel as compared to ATF is that it reduces carbon emissions and enhances fuel efficiency.
According to global airlines' body IATA, aviation industry contributes to two per cent of the total global greenhouse gas emissions.
Recently, India's first ever bio-jet fuel flight was operated.
An aircraft named 'A Bombardier Q400' of Spice jet airlines took off from Dehradun and landed at the airport in the Delhi.
The flight was powered with a blend of 75 per cent air turbine fuel (ATF) and 25 per cent bio-jet fuel.
The fuel has been developed by the CSIR-Indian Institute of Petroleum (IIP), Dehradun.
The bio-jet fuel has been recognised by American Standard Testing Method and meets the specification standards of Pratt & Whitney and Bombardier for commercial application in aircraft.
Shekatkar Committee was associated with which of the following sector?
a) Armed Forces
b) Banking
c) Education
d) Social Justice
Shekatkar Committee was constituted with an aim to recommend measures to enhance combat capability & rebalancing defence expenditure of Armed Forces with an aim to increase "teeth to tail ratio".
Shekatkar Committee:
The Union Ministry of Defence constituted a Committee of Experts under Chairmanship of Lt Gen (Retd) DB Shekatkar.
It recommended the measures to enhance combat capability & rebalancing defence expenditure of Armed Forces with an aim to increase "teeth to tail ratio".
It submitted its report in 2016, that was taken up by the Ministry of Defence to frame key action points and roadmap for implementation.
It is first ever reform exercise to be undertaken in Indian Army since independence.
Measures as recommended by the Committee and taken up for implementation include:
Optimization of Signals Establishments to include Radio Monitoring Companies, Corps Air Support Signal Regiments, Air Formation Signal Regiments, Composite Signal Regiments and merger of Corps Operating and Engineering Signal Regiments.
Restructuring of repair echelons in the Army to include Base Workshops, Advance Base Workshops and Static / Station Workshops in the field Army.
Redeployment of Ordnance echelons to include Vehicle Depots, Ordnance Depots and Central Ordnance Depots apart from streamlining inventory control mechanisms.
Better utilization of Supply and Transportation echelons and Animal Transport Units.
Closure of Military Farms and Army Postal Establishments in peace locations.
Enhancement in standards for recruitment of clerical staff and drivers in the Army.
Improving the efficiency of the National Cadet Corps.
With reference to 3D-Printing Technology, consider the following statements:
The creation of a 3D printed object is achieved using additive processes.
This technology is less cost-competitive at higher volumes
3D-Printing Technology has high accuracy levels as well as high tolerances.
It has Limited accuracy & tolerances.
3D-Printing Technology
3D printing or additive manufacturing is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file.
In that an object is created by laying down successive layers of material until the object is created. Each of these layers can be seen as a thinly sliced horizontal cross-section of the eventual object.
The process always begins with a digital 3D model – the blueprint of the physical object.
This model is sliced by the printer's software into thin, 2-dimensional layers and then turned into a set of instructions in machine language (G-code) for the printer to execute.
The way a 3D printer works varies by process. A desktop Fused Deposition Modelling (FDM) printers melt plastic filaments and lay it down onto the print platform through a nozzle.
Large industrial Selective Laser Sintering (SLS) machines use a laser to melt thin layers of metal or plastic powders.
Depending on the size of the part and the type of printer, a print usually takes about 4 to 18 hours to complete.
3D printed parts are rarely ready-to-use out of the machine though. They often require some post-processing to achieve the desired level of surface finish.
3D printing allows easy fabrication of complex shapes, many of which cannot be produced by any other manufacturing method.
Since 3D printing does not need any specialized tooling, there are essentially no start-up costs.
3D printing though allows for easy customization.
Despite of low-cost prototype it is very quick turnaround. The speed of prototyping greatly accelerates the design cycle.
Large range of (speciality) materials can be used with 3D printers.
Lower strength & anisotropic material properties
Less cost-competitive at higher volumes
Limited accuracy & tolerances
Post-processing & support removal
Consider the following statements about National Culture Fund (NCF):
National Culture Fund (NCF) was set up under an Act of Parliament.
It is managed and administered by a council headed by Tourism Minister.
Under NCF, funds are received as a part of the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) for development Works at Historic Monuments.
c) 3 only
National Culture Fund (NCF) was set up as a Trust under the Charitable Endowment Act, 1890 in November 1996 by the Government, with a view to mobilize extra resources through Public Private Partnerships.
NCF is managed and administered by a council headed by Hon'ble Culture Minister.
National Culture Fund:
The Fund aims at inviting the participation of the corporate sector, non-government organizations, private/public sector as well as individuals in the task of promoting, protecting and preserving India's cultural heritage.
The National Culture Fund is managed and administered by a council headed by Hon'ble Culture Minister to decide the policies and an Executive Committee headed by Secretary, Culture to actualize those policies.
All the projects undertaken by the NCF are completed within a specified period, in accordance with an MoU signed by NCF with the concerned donor organization.
Culture Ministry received around Rs 9 cr as a part of the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) under National Culture Fund (NCF) for development Works at Historic Monuments from 2015 to 2017.
Consider the following statements about Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA):
It is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of ? 50 crore and above.
It is part of the 'Project Sashakt'.
It is based on a recommendation by the Nachiket Mor committee.
The Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) is based on a recommendation by the Sunil Mehta committee that looked into resolution of stressed assets.
Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA):
The inter-creditor agreement is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of ?50 crore and above that are under the control of a group of lenders.
It is part of the 'Project Sashakt' approved by the government to address the problem of resolving bad loans.
The agreement is a "huge step forward" in tackling the bad loan issue as it is drawn up by banks themselves and is a reflection of bankers' resolve to collectively find a solution to stressed asset mess.
Almost the entire banking system and prominent NBFCs like REC, PFC are joining the ICA which has held back fast and effective resolution of stressed assets for decades in the past.
The agreement says if 66% of lenders by value agree to a resolution plan, it would be binding on all lenders. The dissenting creditors will, however, have the option to sell their loans to other lenders at a discount of 15% to the liquidation value, or buy the entire portfolio paying 125% of the value agreed under the debt resolution plan by other lenders.
The agreement says each resolution plan would be submitted to an overseeing committee comprising experts from the banking industry.
For dissenting creditors, the agreement says the "lead bank has the right, but not the obligation, to arrange the buyout of the loan facilities at a value that is equal to 85% of the liquidation or the resolution value —whichever is lower."
Dissenting creditors can also exit by selling their loans to any entity at a price mutually arrived at between the lender and buyer.
The agreement has a standstill clause wherein all lenders are barred from enforcing any legal action against the borrower for recovery of dues. During the standstill period, lenders are barred from transferring or assigning their loans to anyone except a bank or finance company.
The standstill provision will be operative for 180 days from the reference date — the RBI had asked lenders to resolve their restructured loans within 180 days beginning March 1 or refer those to the bankruptcy court.
However, the provision would not prevent lenders from acting against borrowers or directors for criminal offence. Lenders are in the process of getting this inter-creditor agreement approved by their boards.
The inner core is hot liquid, but the outer core is solid.
The earthquake wave velocities helped us in understanding the existence of the core of the earth.
The inner core is solid, but the outer core is a hot liquid.
Core of the earth:
Earth's core is the very hot, very dense centre of our planet, which protects us from the dangerous radiation of space.
The ball-shaped core lies beneath the cool, brittle crust and the mostly-solid mantle.
The core is found about 2,900 kilometers (1,802 miles) below Earth's surface and has a radius of about 3,485 kilometers (2,165 miles).
When the Earth first formed, 4.6 billion years ago, it was a hot ball of molten rock and metal. And since it was mostly liquid, heavier elements like iron and nickel were able to sink down into the planet and accumulate at the core.
The core is believed to have two parts: a solid inner core, with a radius of 1,220 km, and then a liquid outer core that extends to a radius of 3,400 km.
The core is through to be 80% iron, as well as nickel and other dense elements like gold, platinum and uranium.
Scientists think that movements of metal, like currents in the oceans, create the magnetic field that surrounds the Earth. This magnetic field extends out from the Earth for thousands of kilometers, and redirects the solar wind blowing from the Sun. Without this magnetic field, the solar wind would blow away the lightest parts of our atmosphere, and make our environment more like cold, dead Mars.
The mantle is only about 30 km beneath our feet, and it's hot enough to melt rock. At the core of the Earth, temperatures are thought to rise to 3,000 to 5,000 Kelvin.
The Earth's surface is made of less dense materials, so the inside must have something much denser than rock.
The second part is through seismology. When earthquakes rock the surface of the Earth, the planet rings like a bell, and the shockwaves pass through the center of the Earth. Monitoring stations around the planet detect how the waves bounce, and scientists are able to use this to probe the interior of the Earth.
Among which of the following country does not share border with Venezuela?
a) Guyana
b) French Guiana
c) Brazil
d) Colombia
Location of Venezuela:
Venezuela is a federal republic located on the northern coast of South America.
It is bordered by Colombia on the west, Brazil on the south, Guyana on the east, the Dutch Caribbean ABC islands to the north and the islands of Trinidad and Tobago to the north-east.
Consider the following statements about the intrusive and extrusive igneous formations:
Intrusive igneous formations have fine grained crystal.
Basalt is a common example of extrusive igneous rocks.
Granite is a common example of intrusive igneous rocks.
a)	1 and 2 only
b)	2 and 3 only
c)	1 and 3 only
d)	1, 2 and 3
Intrusive igneous formations have large crystal size.
Extrusive and intrusive igneous formations:
On the basis of their origin, igneous rocks are generally classified into two broad categories: intrusive igneous rocks and extrusive igneous rocks.
Intrusive Igneous Rocks
Intrusive igneous rocks are those rocks that are formed from the cooling of magma below the surface of the earth.
Magma cools and hardens within the interior of the earth and does not reach the surface.
The rate of cooling below the earth' s surface is very slow which gives rise to formation of large crystals in the rocks.
Deep seated intrusive rocks are termed as plutonic rocks and shallow depth intrusive rocks are termed as hypabyssal.
Therefore, igneous rocks can, in accordance with their mode of formation, be classified as (a) Plutonic, (b) Hypabyssal and (c) Volcanic rock masses.
Rocks such as granite, gabbro, diorite and pegmatite are examples of intrusive igneous rocks.
They are found as batholiths, laccoliths, sills, dykes, etc.
The huge blocks of coarse granitic rocks are found both in the Himalaya and the Deccan Plateau.
Characteristics of Intrusive Igneous Rocks
Intrusive igneous rocks are coarse-grained rocks as the magma cools slowly inside the earth.
Rocks that form at great depth within the earth are known as abyssal and those found near the surface are called hypabyssal.
They do not contain any fossils.
Intrusive igneous rocks contain vesicles or holes formed by trapped water vapour or gases.
They rarely react with acid.
They have very large crystals.
Extrusive or volcanic Igneous Rocks
Extrusive igneous rocks are formed when the magma comes up onto the surface during volcanic eruptions.
As lava cools very rapidly on coming out of the hot interior of the earth, the mineral crystals forming these rocks are very fine.
These rocks are also known as volcanic rocks.
Rocks such as obsidian (a smooth, dark coloured and shiny almost glassy rock), pumice and basalt are examples of extrusive igneous rocks.
Rhyolite is an extrusive igneous rock and is closely related to granite. It has a glassy appearance and made up of very fine crystals.
Deccan plateau's regur soil in India is derived from lava.
Characteristics of Extrusive Igneous Rocks
These are fine-grained rocks as the lava cools fast on the surface of the earth and hence the texture is fine.
Extrusive igneous rocks are either stony or glassy or frothy in texture.
They contain vesicles of hot, trapped bubbles of gases.
Consider the following statements regarding POSHAN Abhiyaan:
It targets anaemia and low birth rate among others.
It boosts nutrition among pregnant women only.
POSHAN Abhiyaan boosts nutrition among pregnant women, mothers and children.
About POSHAN Abhiyaan:
POSHAN Abhiyaan was launched on International Women's day (March 8) in 2018 to boost nutrition among pregnant women, mothers and children.
POSHAN Abhiyaan is also known as National Nutrition Mission.
It is the abbreviation of Prime Minister's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition.
It was launched in Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan.
It targets to reduce level of under-nutrition and other related problems by ensuring convergence of various nutrition related schemes.
It also targets stunting, under-nutrition, anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and low birth rate.
It will monitor and review implementation of all such schemes and utilize existing structural arrangements of line ministries wherever available.
Target under the mission:
The target of the mission is to bring down stunting among children in the age group 0-6 years from 38.4% to 25% by 2022.
It aims to reduce level of under-nutrition and other related problems by ensuring convergence of various nutrition related schemes.
It also targets stunting, under-nutrition, anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively.
Consider the following statements regarding Invest India:
It is official Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of Central Government.
It is a joint venture company between DIPP, FICCI and State Governments.
It provides sector-specific and state-specific information to a foreign investor.
About Invest India:
It acts as the first point of reference for investors in India.
Operationalized in early 2010, it is first stop for potential global investors in country.
It is non-profit venture under Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce and Industries.
Invest India is a joint venture:
Invest India is set up as a joint venture company between
The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP) (35% equity),
Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) (51% equity)
State Governments of India (0.5% each)
Mandate of Invest India:
The core mandate of Invest India is investment promotion and facilitation.
It provides sector-specific and state-specific information to a foreign investor, assists in expediting regulatory approvals, and offers hand-holding services.
Its mandate also includes assisting Indian investors to make informed choices about investment opportunities overseas.
Consider the following statements regarding Ultra Violet Rays:
It lies between X-rays and visible light in the Electro Magnetic spectrum.
There are 3 types of UV radiation out of which UV-A rays have the longest wavelengths.
UV-C is the most harmful for human beings out of all UV rays from sun.
UV rays:
UV radiation is only one form of radiation and it is measured on a scientific scale called the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum.
It is a form of energy which is invisible to the human eye.
UV radiation is the portion of the Electro Magnetic spectrum between X-rays and visible light.
Types of UV rays:
The most common form of UV radiation is sunlight, which produces three main types of UV rays: UVA, UVB and UVC.
UVA rays have the longest wavelengths, followed by UVB, and UVC rays which have the shortest wavelengths.
While UVA and UVB rays are transmitted through the atmosphere, all UVC and some UVB rays are absorbed by the Earth's ozone layer.
So, most of the UV rays a person comes in contact with are UVA with a small amount of UVB.
UVB rays have a short wavelength that reaches the outer layer of your skin (the epidermis)
UVA rays have a longer wavelength that can penetrate the middle layer of your skin (the dermis)
Although UVA and UVB rays pose the greatest risk for sun damage, people who work with welding torches or mercury lamps may be exposed to UVC rays, the most dangerous type of UV radiation.
The excessive exposure to UV radiation can result in acute and chronic harmful effects on the eye's dioptric system and retina.
Skin, the circadian and immune systems can also be affected.
Overexposure to UVB radiation not only can cause sunburn but also some forms of skin cancer. However, the degree of redness and eye irritation (which are largely not caused by UVA) do not predict the long-term effects of UV, although they do mirror the direct damage of DNA by ultraviolet.
The most-deadly form of skin cancer, malignant melanoma, is mostly caused by DNA damage independent from UVA radiation.
The eye is most sensitive to damage by UV in the lower UVC band at 265–275 nm. Radiation of this wavelength is almost absent from sunlight but is found in welder's arc lights and other artificial sources. Exposure to these can cause "welder's flash" or "arc eye" (photokeratitis) and can lead to cataracts, pterygium and pinguecula formation. It can also damage the cornea, the lens, and the retina.
5 to 15 minutes of casual sun exposure of hands, face and arms two to three times a week during the summer months is sufficient to keep vitamin D levels high in the body.
UV rays also treat certain skin conditions. Modern phototherapy has been used to successfully treat psoriasis, eczema, jaundice, vitiligo, atopic dermatitis, and localized scleroderma.
Consider the following statements with regards to Earth Overshoot Day:
It is calculated by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
It is the date when humanity annual demand on nature exceeds what Earth can regenerate over the entire decade.
It is calculated by dividing the world biocapacity by the world ecological footprint and multiplying by 365.
Earth Overshoot Day is calculated by Global Footprint Network and World-Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
It is date when humanity annual demand on nature exceeds what Earth can regenerate over the entire year.
Earth Overshoot Day:
This day depicts that 1.7 earths will be required by humanity to satisfy its exploitative needs keeping in mind current rate of consumption and waste production.
2018 Earth Overshoot Day will fall on August 1, the earliest date since ecological overshoot began in early 1970s.
This year the overshoot day falls two days earlier than the last year's.
According to the Global Footprint Network, if we cut our carbon emissions by half, Earth Overshoot Day would come 89 days later in the year.
If we cut food waste in half worldwide, we could move the date back 11 days. By eating less protein-intensive food, we could move it back 31 days.
Earth Overshoot Day is calculated by dividing the world biocapacity (the amount of natural resources generated by Earth that year), by the world ecological footprint (humanity's consumption of Earth's natural resources for that year), and multiplying by 365, the number of days in one Gregorian common calendar year.
What are the reasons for earlier Earth Overshoot Day?
Every day after August 1 will now be considered as strain on Earth's natural resources. In 2018, nature's budget for entire year has already been used up in just span of 8 months only.
It means humanity is currently using nature 1.7 times faster than Earth's ecosystems can regenerate. It shows that mankind and human actions are putting unprecedented pressure on environment and its resources. This has been prime cause of overshoot day constantly moving up calendar from late September in 1997 to its earliest yet in 2018.
The two greatest contributing factors to humanity's Ecological Footprint are carbon emissions (60%) and food (26%).
Measures to prevent Earth Overshoot Day from coming sooner next year
Use public transportation and cut down driving by half in the entire world
Reduce all the food waste by half
Reduce meat consumption: It takes a longer time and larger amount of land to
Population control: It is suggested that every other family should have one child less is we want to move back the Overshoot Day
Which of the following is/are correct regarding waves of Earthquake?
P waves arrive at seismograph stations first.
S waves can travel through solid but not through liquids.
P-waves are transverse waves while S-waves are longitudinal waves.
c)	c) 1 and 3 only
d)	d) 1, 2 and 3
P-waves are longitudinal waves while S-waves are transverse waves.
Earthquake:
All the natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere, the portion of depth up to 200 km from the surface of the earth.
An instrument called 'seismograph' records the waves reaching the surface.
Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves.
Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the body of the earth.
The body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves called surface waves.
These waves move along the surface. The velocity of waves changes as they travel through materials with different densities.
The denser the material, the higher is the velocity.
Their direction also changes as they reflect or refract when coming across materials with different densities.
P and S waves of earthquake:
There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves. And One type of Surface waves called L waves.
P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called 'primary waves' and longitudinal waves.
The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves and transverse waves.
S-waves can travel only through solid materials, and this characteristic has helped scientists to understand the structure of the interior of the earth.
As these waves move or propagate, they cause vibration in the body of the rocks through which they pass.
P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the direction of the propagation.
As a result, it creates density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the material.
The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass.
Surface waves are considered to be the most damaging waves.
Innovate India Platform was jointly launched by.
Atal Innovation Mission
MyGov Portal
INSPIRE Programme
Standup India
Atal Innovation Mission and MyGov has jointly launched 'Innovate India Platform'.
Innovate India Platform
NITI Aayog's Atal Innovation Mission and MyGov has jointly launched 'InnovateIndia Platform'.
It is citizen centric platform that aims to serve as common point for all innovation happening across the nation.
It creates much-needed innovations platform for registering both grassroots and deep-tech innovators at national level.
It will help those who are searching for critical innovation for benefit of the economy as well as national social needs.
It is open to all Indian citizens.
Using it, users can view, comment, share, and rate innovations crowdsourced on #InnovateIndia platform.
They can view leaderboard which is calculated based on votes on each innovation.
It allows citizens to share their organizations or someone else's innovation on platform by login to MyGov website.
These innovations also can be shared on various social media platforms such as Facebook, Twitter and WhatsApp.
About Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
AIM is flagship initiative to promote culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in country.
Its mandated is to create umbrella structure to oversee innovation ecosystem of country and revolutionize innovation eco-system.
Its sub-schemes include establishing Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) and Atal Incubation Centers (AICs), for providing scaling up support to Established Incubation Centres.
It also includes finding ultra-low cost solution to India's most intractable problems through Atal Grand Challenges and Atal Vikas Challenges.
Gulf is the depositional landform where an island is connected to mainland by a narrow strip.
When the sea advances towards the land due to tectonic factors, it is called Tombolo.
Advancement of sea waves into the mouth of the river is known as bay.
When the sea advances towards land eroding the soft rock, it is called bore.
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Tombolo is the depositional landform where an island is connected to mainland by a narrow strip.
When the sea advances towards the land due to tectonic factors, it is called gulf.
Advancement of sea waves into the mouth of the river is known as bore.
When the sea advances towards land eroding the soft rock, it is called bay.
Bore:
A tidal bore occurs along a coast where a river empties into an ocean or sea. A tidal bore is a strong tide that pushes up the river, against the current. A tidal bore is a true tidal wave.
A tidal bore is a surge. A surge is a sudden change in depth. When a channel suddenly gets deeper, it experiences a positive surge. When a channel suddenly gets shallower, it experiences a negative surge. Tidal bores are positive surges.
Not all coasts feature tidal bores. In fact, there are few places where tidal bores occur. The river must be fairly shallow. It must have a narrow outlet to the sea. However, the estuary, or place where the river meets the sea, must be wide and flat.
The coast's tidal range—the area between high tide and low tide—must be quite large, usually at least 6 meters (about 20 feet). When all of these conditions are met, a tidal bore is formed.
There are exceptions. The Amazon River is the largest river in the world. It empties into the Atlantic Ocean. The mouth of the Amazon is not narrow, but the river still has a strong tidal bore.
A tidal bore develops here because the mouth of the river is shallow and dotted by many low-lying islands and sand bars.
The tidal bore, called the pororoca, is so strong that the Amazon does not have a delta.
Its sediment is emptied directly into the Atlantic and carried away by fast-moving currents.
Bay:
A bay is a recessed, coastal body of water that directly connects to a larger main body of water, such as an ocean, a lake, or another bay.
A large bay is usually called a gulf, sea, sound, or bight. A cove is a type of smaller bay with a circular inlet and narrow entrance. A fjord is a particularly steep bay shaped by glacial activity.
A bay can be the estuary of a river, such as the Chesapeake Bay, an estuary of the Susquehanna River.
Bays may also be nested within each other; for example, James Bay is an arm of Hudson Bay in north-eastern Canada.
Some large bays, such as the Bay of Bengal and Hudson Bay, have varied marine geology.
The land surrounding a bay often reduces the strength of winds and blocks waves.
Bays were significant in the history of human settlement because they provided safe places for fishing. Later they were important in the development of sea trade as the safe anchorage they provide encouraged their selection as ports.
Gulf:
A gulf is a large inlet from the ocean into the landmass, typically with a narrower opening than a bay; though this is not observable in all geographic areas so named.
A gulf is a portion of the ocean that penetrates land. Gulfs vary greatly in size, shape, and depth.
They are generally larger and more deeply indented than bays. Like bays, they often make excellent harbours. Many important trading centres are located on gulfs.
Gulfs may be formed by movements in the Earth's crust. The Earths tectonic plates may rift, or break apart, creating a gulf. Or, one plate may fold under another, a process called subduction. Subduction may create a gulf by making downfolds, or troughs, in the rock under the ocean.
Gulfs are sometimes connected to the ocean by narrow passages of water called straits. Gulfs can also have wide openings and are sometimes indistinguishable from larger bodies of water.
The term gulf was traditionally used for large, highly indented, navigable bodies of salt water which are enclosed by the coastline.
Many gulfs are major shipping areas, such as the Persian Gulf, Gulf of Mexico, and Gulf of Aden.
Tombolo:
A tombolo is a sandy isthmus.
A tombolo, from the Italian tombolo, derived from the Latin tumulus, meaning 'mound', and sometimes translated as ayre, is a deposition landform in which an island is attached to the mainland by a narrow piece of land such as a spit or bar.
Once attached, the island is then known as a tied island.
Several islands tied together by bars which rise above the water level are called a tombolo cluster.
Two or more tombolos may form an enclosure (called a lagoon) that can eventually fill with sediment.
True tombolos are formed by wave refraction and diffraction. As waves near an island, they are slowed by the shallow water surrounding it.
These waves then bend around the island to the opposite side as they approach. The wave pattern created by this water movement causes a convergence of longshore drift on the opposite side of the island.
The beach sediments that are moving by lateral transport on the lee side of the island will accumulate there, conforming to the shape of the wave pattern.
In other words, the waves sweep sediment together from both sides. Eventually, when enough sediment has built up, the beach shoreline, known as a spit, will connect with an island and form a tombolo.
Mission Satyanishtha aims to sensitize about ethics and integrity for the employees of.
a) Railways
b) Income Tax Department
c) State Police services
d) Judicial services
Mission Satyanishtha
Indian Railways has launched Mission Satyanishtha.
Mission Satyanishtha aims at sensitizing all railway employees about need to adhere to good ethics and to maintain high standards of integrity at work.
Under it, talks and lectures on subject were organised all over Indian Railways for this purpose.
Objectives of the mission:
To train every employee to understand need and value of ethics in personal and public life.
To deal with ethical dilemmas in life and public governance.
To help understand policies of Indian Railways on ethics and integrity and employee's role in upholding same.
To develop inner governance through tapping inner resources.
Consider the following statements regarding the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ):
ITCZ is the Zone of convergence of air masses along the equatorial trough.
Within the ITCZ the average winds are mild. Hence, they are called as the doldrums by the sailors.
ITCZ is most active over continental land masses by day and relatively less active over the oceans.
All of the above statements are correct.
Intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ):
The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone, or ITCZ, is a belt of low pressure which circles the Earth generally near the equator where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres come together.
It is characterised by convective activity which generates often vigorous thunderstorms over large areas.
It is most active over continental land masses by day and relatively less active over the oceans.
The intense sun and warm water of the equator heats the air in the ITCZ, raising its humidity and making it buoyant. Aided by the convergence of the trade winds, the buoyant air rises. As the air rises it expands and cools, releasing the accumulated moisture in an almost perpetual series of thunderstorms.
Seasonal shifts in the location of the ITCZ drastically affects rainfall in many equatorial nations, resulting in the wet and dry seasons of the tropics rather than the cold and warm seasons of higher latitudes. Longer term changes in the ITCZ can result in severe droughts or flooding in nearby areas.
Causes of ITCZ:
ITCZ (Intertropical Convergence Zone) is caused by the convergence of northeast and southeast trade winds in the area encircling Earth near the Equator. For better understanding, we must know about the trade winds and air masses.
Trade Winds: Easterly winds that circle the Earth near the equator.
Air Masses: A volume of air defined by its temperature and water vapour content. In tropical latitudes this air mass is hot to very hot, with high relative humidity, bringing unstable weather.
It appears as a band of clouds consisting of showers, with occasional thunderstorms, that encircles the globe near the equator due to the convergence of the trade winds.
It affects rainfall in equatorial region due to the variation of location resulting in the wet and dry seasons of the tropics rather than the cold and warm seasons of higher latitudes.
Longer term changes resulted severe droughts or flooding.
It helps in the formation of cyclone because it is a zone of wind change and speed.
However, it is in this zone that the most severe effects may often be encountered.
In particular, it is within the ITCZ that convective breakthroughs of the tropopause often occur, with the majority occurring over land, especially in the second half of each day.
Convective penetration of the tropopause is less common over oceanic areas where the phenomenon is more likely to occur in the early hours of each day, generating more isolated cells.
Research sponsored by NASA has shown that 1% of tropical deep convective activity exceeds 46,000 ft altitude, with a small proportion of this reaching much greater heights.
Consider the following statements regarding World Meteorological Organization (WMO):
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
It designated India as a nodal centre for preparing flash-flood forecasts.
Both of the above statements are correct.
World Meteorological Organization (WMO):
WMO is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) with 191 Member States and Territories.
It is the UN system's authoritative voice on the state and behaviour of the Earth's atmosphere, its interaction with the land and oceans, the weather and climate it produces and the resulting distribution of water resources.
India has been designated as a nodal centre for preparing flash-flood forecasts by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
That means India will have to develop a customised model that can issue advance warning of floods in Vietnam, Sri Lanka, Myanmar and Thailand.
Though Pakistan was among the list of countries that would benefit from the forecast, it had refused to participate in the scheme.
WMO programmes facilitate and promote:
The establishment of networks of observational stations to provide weather, climate and water-related data;
The establishment and maintenance of data management centres and telecommunication systems for the provision and rapid exchange of weather, climate and water-related data;
The creation of standards for observation and monitoring in order to ensure adequate uniformity in the practices and procedures employed worldwide and, thereby, ascertain the homogeneity of data and statistics;
The application of science and technology in operational meteorology and hydrology to aviation, transport (air, land and maritime), water resource management, agriculture and other focus areas;
Activities in operational hydrology as well as closer cooperation between National Meteorological and Hydrological Services in states and territories where they are separate; and
The coordination of research and training in meteorology and related fields.
Which of the following statements regarding 'Beej Bachao Andolan' is/are correct?
It is aimed to promote modern agriculture over traditional agriculture.
It drew links between the erosion of agricultural biodiversity and rural livelihoods.
It is sought to fight back against agrarian policies that favour corporate agribusiness at the expense of small farmers.
The Beej Bachao Andolan, or Save the Seeds movement began in the late 1980s as a group of activists from the Henwal River Valley in Tehri district (Uttarakhand, India), led by Vijay Jardhari. It has its roots in the Chipko movement. It is aimed to promote traditional agriculture and crop varieties.
Beej Bachao Andolan:
The Beej Bachao Andolan, or Save the Seeds movement began in the late 1980s as a group of activists from the Henwal River Valley in Tehri district (Uttarakhand, India), led by Vijay Jardhari.
It has its roots in the Chipko movement.
It is aimed to promote traditional agriculture and crop varieties.
It drew links between the erosion of agricultural biodiversity and rural livelihoods and sought to preserve the people's cultural and scientific patrimony, as well as fight back against agrarian policies that favour corporate agribusiness at the expense of small farmers.
Many members such as Dhoom Singh Negi and Sudesha Devi are veterans of various social and environmental movements of the region including Chipko, the Anti-Liquor movement, and the anti-Mining struggles.
A farmer and social activist from Jardhargaon, Vijay Jardhari, realised that modern agriculture was destroying traditional farming. Crop yields of the 'high-yielding varieties' in modern agriculture were actually low; soil fertility was declining, leading to an increasing dependence on toxic chemicals.
Today BBA has about 150 varieties of paddy from which 100 different varieties can still be grown. Of these, tapachini and jhamcha yield about 72 quintals per hectare. BBA has also collected 170 varieties of rajma.
Effective pest control is accomplished by using the leaves of the walnut and neem, and the application of ash and cow's urine.
The use of traditional farming methods and seeds has resulted in higher yields. Health has improved as people have a balanced diet. Livestock health has improved too, because more fodder is available. At the same time soil fertility and agro-biodiversity have been conserved.
Beej Bachao Andolan activists have resolved to undertake the following:
Value Traditional Knowledge and Wisdom that ensures sustained survival and wellbeing of agriculture and people.
Practice Principles of Traditional Agriculture that maintain a balance between man, animal, plant, water, air and earth.
Preserve the Sociology of Traditional Agriculture that enables self-sufficiency, yet also inter-dependence within society, lending collective support to individual efforts.
Conserve Forests that provide food and fuel to the people, fodder to the cattle, fertilizer to the fields, and water to the springs and rivulets.
Conserve Biodiversity which cuts risks, enhances food security and promotes a healthy variety to life.
Prevent the Poisoning of the Earth, its denizens and life-support systems, from the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture.
Help People Wrest Control over natural resources for their common good.
Demand Legal Farmer Status for Women, the true keepers of holistic, sustainable agriculture.
Seek Recognition for small farmers in their capacity as providers to the nation.
Seek Scientist Status for Farmers who have tried, tested, improved upon and sustained the various facets of a healthy, sustainable agriculture through the history.
Seek Direct Representation of Farmers in policy decision making.
Consider the following statements with regards to Inner Line Permit (ILP).
It is travel document issued by the Government of India to the citizen of India for inward travelling into a protected area.
It is a system that was introduced during British era.
It is operational in the states of Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland.
The Inner Line Permit is operational in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland.
Inner Line Permit (ILP):
The Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to grant inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a limited period.
It is obligatory for Indians residing outside those states to obtain permission prior to entering the protected areas.
It can be issued for travel purposes solely. Visitors are not allowed to purchase property in these regions. However, there might be a different set of rules for long term visitors, though they are not valid for central government employees and security forces.
Currently, the Inner Line Permit is operational in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland.
The document has been issued under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873 and the conditions and restrictions vary from state to state.
Manipur People's Protection Bill, 2018:
Manipur People's Protection Bill, 2018, passed by the state assembly recently, has been welcomed with protests across various districts in the state.
The Manipur People's Protection Bill, 2018 seeks to regulate the entry and exit of "outsiders" on the lines of the British-era inner-line permit system prevalent in three other north-eastern states — Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland.
The bill aims to grant the status of "natives" to Meitis, Pangal Muslims, scheduled tribes and others who moved to the state before 1951. The bill sets 1951 as the base year to identify locals and prevent an influx of outsiders.
The rest, categorised as "Non-Manipuris", will have to register themselves within one month of the notification of the law. They will be issued a pass extendable up to six months. While those who have trade licences can get a pass extendable up to five years, which will have to be renewed every year. Any outsider visiting Manipur would need a pass.
The bill, if approved by the Governor and made an Act, people who came to Manipur after 1951 would be viewed as 'foreigners' and would have no voting or land rights.
Bengali Muslims and Hindus from southern Assam's Barak Valley have been migrating to Manipur, particularly Jiribam, for a long time.
Rationale behind the passage of the bill:
The influx of foreign tourists has increased exponentially in Manipur, thus creating a demographic imbalance in the region.
If this was not enough, illegal immigration from Bangladesh, Nepal and Myanmar has also contributed to the crisis. This has created fear among the locals over employment and availability of resources.
At a time where there already exists stiff competition between the locals and outsiders over jobs, the outsiders mostly settle for low paid work. Hence, locals feel ILP fails to safeguard the interests of the indigenous people.
Consider the following geological events:
Subsidence of the northern flank of the Peninsular block.
Subsidence of the western flank of the Peninsula block.
Slight tilting of the Peninsular block from the northwest to southeast direction.
Which of the above geological events is/are associated in shaping the present drainage system of Peninsular India?
All the above geological events are associated in shaping the present drainage system of Peninsular India.
Three major geological events in the distant past have shaped the present drainage system of Peninsular India:
Subsidence of the western flank of the Peninsula leading to its submergence below the sea during the early tertiary period. Generally, it has disturbed the symmetrical plan of the river on either side of the original watershed.
Upheaval of the Himalayas when the northern flank of the peninsular block was subjected to subsidence and the consequent trough faulting. The Narmada and The Tapi flow in trough faults and fill the original cracks with their detritus materials. Hence, there is a lack of alluvial and deltaic deposits in these rivers.
Slight tilting of the peninsular block from northwest to the South-eastern direction gave orientation to the entire drainage system towards the Bay of Bengal during the same period.
River-Systems:
The peninsular river system can be categorised into the following sections:
The East flowing rivers:
The Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauvery flow eastwards and drain into the Bay of Bengal. These rivers make deltas at their mouths.
The West flowing rivers:
Narmada and Tapi along with other small rivers originating from the Western Ghats and falling in the Arabian Sea form estuaries in place of deltas. This is due to the fact that these rivers, especially Narmada and Tapi, flow through hard rocks and are not able to form distributaries before they enter the sea.
Although these west flowing rivers of Sahyadri form only about 3% of the areal extent of basins of India, they contain about 18% of the country's water resources.
The Western Ghats running close to the western coast act as a water divide between the major Peninsular Rivers discharging their water in the Bay of Bengal and the small rivulets joining the Arabian Sea.
The Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa, the Ken, the Son, originating in the northern part of the Peninsula belong to the Ganga river system.
The Peninsular rivers are characterized by fixed courses, absence of meanders and non-perennial flow of water. The Narmada and the Tapi which flow through the rift valley are, however, exceptions.
Global Tiger Initiative Council (GTIC) is a programme of:
The initiative of Global Tiger Initiative is led by the 13 tiger range countries.
'Global Tiger Initiative (GTI)':
The Global Tiger Initiative (GTI) was launched in 2008 as a global alliance of governments, international organizations, civil society, the conservation and scientific communities and the private sector, with the aim of working together to save wild tigers from extinction.
In 2013, the scope was broadened to include Snow Leopards.
The GTI's founding partners included the World Bank, the Global Environment Facility (GEF), the Smithsonian Institution, Save the Tiger Fund, and International Tiger Coalition (representing more than 40 non-government organizations).
The initiative is led by the 13 tiger range countries (TRCs).
GTRP is built on the foundation of the countries' respective priorities and the international community must respond urgently. This is a shared responsibility of the founders of GTI, including the World Bank, and of the many other partners who have pledged their technical and financial support.
In November 2010, leaders of the tiger range countries (TRCs) assembled at an International Tiger Forum in St. Petersburg, Russia to adopt the St. Petersburg Declaration on Tiger Conservation and endorsed its implementation mechanism, called the Global Tiger Recovery Program. Their overarching goal was to double the number of wild tigers across their geographical area from about 3,200 to more than 7,000 by 2022.
The World Bank hosted the GTI Secretariat until July 2015 and acted as a convener of a global network working to save wild tigers and snow leopards from extinction. The Secretariat helped with the strategic imperatives agreed to in the St. Petersburg Declaration on Tiger Conservation and the Global Tiger Recovery Program.
Knowledge sharing among the tiger range countries is the cornerstone of GTI.
Led by the tiger range countries, GTI has forged a unity of purpose among governments and non-government conservation organizations alike and has generated a diversity of views about how to achieve the goal of doubling the number of wild tigers by 2022.
Implementation of our global resolution must now begin in earnest on the ground. For this is where the battle to save wild tigers and their important ecosystems will be fought.
The International Tiger Conference will be followed by a meeting of the General Assembly of the Global Tiger Forum (GTF). The GTF is the only inter-governmental body focused on promoting the conservation of the tiger. Currently, India is the host country for the GTF.
This conference is an important first step in bringing all 13 tiger range countries together again to build on the Global Tiger Recovery Programme and stop the tiger's decline.
The conference has been hosted by the national Tiger Conservation Authority, Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India and Co-organized and co-sponsored by the Global Tiger Forum (GTF) and Global Tiger Initiative (GTI).
The country-led GTI process has proven highly successful in developing political will and creating a comprehensive, cooperative global tiger recovery programme.
Consider the following statements with respect to Laterite soil:
Laterite soil is found in the region of extreme rainfall and cold winters.
This kind of soil is suitable for rice cultivation only.
It is widely found in Kerala.
This soil resembles a brick in terms of its deep red colour and surface texture.
Laterite soils develop in the areas of high temperature and high precipitation.
Laterite soils are coarse textured and can't retain moisture. Apart from this they are also devoid of most of minerals and humus, so they are not fertile. Thus, only special crops like tea, coffee, tapioca, cashewnuts, etc. are grown.
Laterite soil:
Laterite soil is rich in aluminium and iron, formed in wet and hot tropical areas.
Almost all laterite soils are red due to the presence of iron oxides.
It is prepared by the prolonged and rigorous weathering of the parent rock.
Laterisation or tropical weathering is a long-drawn-out process of chemical and mechanical weathering which results in a large variety in the chemistry, grade, thickness and ore mineralogy of the ensuing soils.
Laterite soils are pregnant with aluminium and iron oxides, but are deficient in potash, phosphoric acid, lime and nitrogen.
Laterite soil is primarily found in the tropical regions which receive heavy seasonal rainfall. High rainfall encourages the leaching of soil where lime and silica are leached away and a soil rich in oxides of aluminium predominate and abundance laterite is called bauxite. Due to the presence of iron oxides the colour of laterite soil is basically red. This soil is poor in lime content and hence it is acidic.
Further, laterite soils of high-level areas are very poor and least retentive of moisture and at times barren. But, in the low-lying areas, regular addition of soils that are washed down from the adjacent higher areas affects lateralisation. In those areas, the lateritic soil being either mud or loam is useful and is regularly ploughed. For the continuous cultivation of crops, regular application of fertilizers is required.
Laterite soil in India:
Laterite soil is found in different parts of India including the Eastern Ghats, Rajmahal hill, Western Ghats, Maharashtra, Kerala, Orissa, Karnataka, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Assam, etc. Laterite soil is also widely found around the Satpura, Vindhyan Plateau, Maikal and Mahadeo ranges in Madhya Pradesh.
Laterite soil in India is mainly found capping the flat uplands, and is also spread in the western coastal region, getting incredibly heavy rain.
Lateritic soils are also abundant in area along the edge of the plateau in the east, covering small parts of the states of Tamil Nadu and Orissa and a small portion of the Chota Nagpur Plateau in the north and Meghalaya in north-east.
Laterite soils are habitually poor and can hold only scrub forests and pastures. Among the mixed types of soils, two groups are more substantial. They include the desert soils of western Rajasthan and mountain soils of the Himalayas.
Laterite soils are found on the high-level plateau and hilly areas that receive high rainfall and are specifically well developed on the Eastern Ghats in Orissa. It is also found in the southern regions of the Western Ghats including the adjoining coastal regions in Ratnagiri District and Malabar.
Humus is almost absent in this type of soil. However, in the laterite soil developed in the forested areas in the western part of Karnataka state, humus is present.
Union Cabinet has approved National Policy on Biofuels 2018. Consider the following statements in this regard.
Rajasthan became the first State to implement the policy.
The policy lays emphasis on increasing production of oilseeds.
The policy allows the use of corn, cassava, damaged food grains, and rotten potatoes, unfit for human consumption.
It lays emphasis on adopting 2G technologies to generate additional income to farmers.
National policy on biofuels:
In May 2018, the Union Cabinet has approved National Policy on Biofuels – 2018 in order to promote biofuels in the country.
Rajasthan has become the first State in the country to implement the national policy on biofuels.
The policy lays emphasis on increasing production of oilseeds and establish a Centre for Excellence in Udaipur to promote research in the fields of alternative fuels and energy resources.
Salient Features of the policy:
The Policy categorises biofuels as "Basic Biofuels" viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and "Advanced Biofuels" – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.
Scope of raw materials:
The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.
Protection to farmers:
Farmers are at a risk of not getting appropriate price for their produce during the surplus production phase. Taking this into account, the Policy allows use of surplus food grains for production of ethanol for blending with petrol with the approval of National Biofuel Coordination Committee.
Viability gap funding:
With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the Policy indicates a viability gap funding scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to additional tax incentives, higher purchase price as compared to 1G biofuels.
Boost to biodiesel production:
The Policy encourages setting up of supply chain mechanisms for biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil, short gestation crops.
Expected benefits:
Import dependency:
The policy aims at reducing import dependency.
Cleaner environment:
By reducing crop burning & conversion of agricultural residues/wastes to biofuels there will be further reduction in Green House Gas emissions.
Health benefits:
Prolonged reuse of Cooking Oil for preparing food, particularly in deep-frying is a potential health hazard and can lead to many diseases. Used Cooking Oil is a potential feedstock for biodiesel and its use for making biodiesel will prevent diversion of used cooking oil in the food industry.
Employment Generation:
One 100klpd 2G bio refinery can contribute 1200 jobs in Plant Operations, Village Level Entrepreneurs and Supply Chain Management.
Additional Income to Farmers:
By adopting 2G technologies, agricultural residues/waste which otherwise are burnt by the farmers can be converted to ethanol and can fetch a price for these wastes if a market is developed for the same.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Highlands:
The Central Highlands are wider in the east but narrower in the west.
Chambal, Sind, Betwa and Ken are rivers draining this region.
This region has highly denuded and discontinuous relict mountains.
The Central Highlands are wider in the west but narrower in the east.
Central Highlands in India:
Central Highlands in India are made of the Malwa Plateau, Deccan Plateau and Chota Nagpur Plateau.
Central Highlands in India can be defined as a bio-geographic zone.
These highlands have been formed by the disjunct ranges of the Satpura and Vindhya Hills. The Malwa Plateau in the west, the Deccan Plateau in the south (covering majority of the Indian peninsula) and the Chota Nagpur Plateau in the east are the most important regions of the Indian subcontinent and the Central Highlands in India.
The Central Highland of India is bounded in the west by the Aravalli Range, to the south by the Narmada River and the Deccan Plateau beyond, to the east by Eastern Highland and to the north by the Northern Plains of India.
Malwa Plateau
The Malwa Plateau is located in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. The average altitude of the Malwa Plateau is about 500 meters and the landscape generally slope towards the north. The Chambal River and its tributaries drain most of the region. The upper reaches of the Mahi River drain the western part.
Deccan Plateau
Deccan Plateau is a large triangular plateau, surrounded by the Vindhyas to the north and flanked by the Eastern and Western Ghats. It covers a total area of about 1.9 million square kilometers. It is mostly flat, with elevations ranging from 300 to 600 m (1,000 to 2,000 ft).
Central Highlands in India, Indian Physiography The average elevation of the plateau is about 2,000 feet (600 m) above sea level. The surface slopes from 3,000 feet (900 m) in the west to 1,500 feet (450 m) in the east.
It slopes gently from west to east and gives rise to several peninsular rivers such as the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri and the Narmada, which drain into the Bay of Bengal. This region is mostly semi-arid as it lies on the lower side of both Ghats. Much of the Deccan is encompassed by thorn scrub forest scattered with small regions of deciduous broadleaf forest.
Climate in the Deccan ranges from hot summers to mild winters.
Chota Nagpur Plateau is located in eastern India and is one of the central highlands in India, covering much of the Indian state of Jharkhand and adjacent parts of Odisha, Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
Its total area is approximately 65,000 square kilometers and it is made up of three smaller plateaus, namely the Ranchi, Hazaribagh, and Kodarma plateaus.
The Ranchi Plateau is the largest, with an average elevation of about 700 m (2,300 ft). Much of the plateau is forested, covered by the Chota Nagpur dry deciduous forests. The Hazaribagh Plateau is divided into two parts namely, the higher plateau and the lower plateau.
The Hazaribagh town has been built on the Hazaribagh Plateau. It has an average elevation of about 610 m (2,000 ft).
The Koderma Plateau or the Hazaribagh Lower Plateau has uniform and gentle slope towards the east. The northern face of the Kodarma Plateau looks like a range of hills, but in actuality it is the edge of a plateau, which is about 240 meters from the level of the Gaya Plain.
Huge reserves of metal ores and coal have been found in the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
Consider the following statements regarding Ayushman Bharat scheme:
The scheme integrates Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) and Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS).
It allows cashless benefits from any public or private empanelled hospitals in respective states.
Central Government will use escrow account for direct payment to state agencies.
It does not cover pre and post-hospitalisation expenses and transport allowance.
It covers all the section of the society and all age group.
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
It allows the beneficiary to take cashless benefits across the country.
It covers pre and post-hospitalisation expenses and transport allowance also.
It covers families belonging to vulnerable population based on Socio Economic and Caste Census 2011.
Ayushman Bharat-National Health Protection Mission (AB-NHPM):
The scheme will integrate two on-going centrally sponsored schemes viz. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) and Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS).
AB-NHPM aims to target over 10 crore families belonging to poor and vulnerable population based on Socio Economic and Caste Census 2011 (SECC) database.
It will cover of Rs 5 lakh per family per year, taking care of almost all secondary care and tertiary care procedures. There will be no cap on family size and age in the scheme.
The scheme allows the beneficiary to take cashless benefits from any public or private empanelled hospitals across the country.
The payment for treatment will be done on package rate which will be defined by Government in advance basis. The package rates will include all the costs associated with treatment.
To ensure that funds reach SHA on time, transfer of funds from Central Government through AB-NHPMA to State Health Agencies may be done through an escrow account directly.
The scheme will work in partnership with NITI Aayog to operationalise a robust, modular and interoperable IT platform which will involve a paperless and cashless transaction.
For giving policy directions and fostering coordination between Centre and States, Ayushman Bharat National Health Protection Mission Council (AB-NHPMC) will be set up at apex level. It will be chaired by Union Health and Family Welfare Minister.
It is entitlement-based scheme with entitlement decided on basis of deprivation criteria in SECC database.
Different categories of families covered under scheme are Families having only one room with kucha walls and kucha roof, families having no adult member between age 16 to 59, female headed households with no adult male member between age 16 to 59, disabled member and no able-bodied adult member in family, SC/ST households, landless households deriving major part of their income from manual casual labour.
It will also automatically include families in rural areas having any one of the following- households without shelter, destitute, living on alms, manual scavenger families, primitive tribal groups or legally released bonded labour.
For urban areas, 11 defined occupational categories will be entitled under scheme.
Benefit cover:
It includes pre and post-hospitalisation expenses.
It will cover all pre-existing conditions from beginning of the policy.
It will also pay defined transport allowance per hospitalization to the beneficiary.
States/UTs will have also flexibility to modify these rates within limited bandwidth. For beneficiaries, it will be cashless and paper less transaction.
States will be required to form State Health Agency (SHA) to implement scheme and at district level also, a structure for implementation of the scheme will be set up
They will be allowed to expand the scheme both horizontally and vertically. They will be free to choose modalities for implementation.
They can implement through insurance company or directly through Trust/ Society or a mixed model.
Which of the following is not a tributary of Indus river?
a) Subansiri
b) Shyok
c) Zaskar
d) Hunza
Subansiri is a tributary of Brahmaputra river. Tributaries of Indus river include Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Satluj, Zaskar, Nubra, Shyok, Hunza etc.
Tributaries of Indus:
Jhelum River
The Jhelum has its source in a spring at Verinag in the south-eastern part of the Kashmir Valley.
It flows northwards into Wular Lake (north-western part of Kashmir Valley). From Wular Lake, it changes its course southwards. At Baramulla the river enters a gorge in the hills.
The river forms steep-sided narrow gorge through Pir Panjal Rangebelow Baramula.
At Muzaffarabad, the river takes a sharp hairpin bend southward.
Thereafter, it forms the India-Pakistan boundary for 170 km and emerges at the Potwar Plateau near Mirpur.
After flowing through the spurs of the Salt Range it debouches (emerge from a confined space into a wide, open area) on the plains near the city of Jhelum.
It joins the Chenab at Trimmu.
The river is navigable for about 160 km out of a total length of 724 km.
Chenab River
The Chenab originates from near the Bara Lacha Pass in the Lahul-Spiti part of the Zaskar Range.
Two small streams on opposite sides of the pass, namely Chandra and Bhaga, form its headwaters at an altitude of 4,900 m.
The united stream Chandrabhaga flows in the north-west direction through the Pangi valley, parallel to the Pir Panjal range.
Near Kistwar, it cuts a deep gorge.
It enters the plain area near Akhnur in Jammu and Kashmir.
From here it through the plains of Pakistani Punjab to reach Panchnad where it joins the Satluj after receiving the waters of Jhelum and Ravi rivers.
Ravi River
The Ravi has its source in Kullu hills near the Rohtang Pass in Himachal Pradesh.
It drains the area between the Pir Panjal and the Dhaola Dhar ranges.
After crossing Chamba, it takes a south-westerly turn and cuts a deep gorge in the Dhaola Dhar range.
It enters Punjab Plains near Madhopur and later enters Pakistan below Amritsar.
It debouches into the Chenab a little above Rangpur in Pakistani Punjab.
Beas River
The Beas originates near the Rohtang Pass, at a height of 4,062 m above sea level, on the southern end of the Pir Panjal Range, close to the source of the Ravi.
It crosses the Dhaola Dhar range and it takes a south-westerly direction and meets the Satluj river at Harike in Punjab.
It is a comparatively small river which is only 460 km long but lies entirely within the Indian territory.
Satluj River
The Satluj rises from the Manasarovar-Rakas Lakes in western Tibet at a height of 4,570 m within 80 km of the source of the Indus.
Like the Indus, it takes a north-westerly course upto the Shipki La on the Tibet-Himachal Pradesh boundary.
It cuts deep gorges where it pierces the Great Himalaya and the other Himalayan ranges.
Before entering the Punjab plain, it cuts a gorge in Naina Devi Dhar, where the famous Bhakra damhas been constructed.
After entering the plain at Rupnagar (Ropar), it turns westwards and is joined by the Beas at Harike.
From near Ferozepur to Fazilka it forms the boundary between India and Pakistan for nearly 120 km.
During its onward journey it receives the collective drainage of the Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum rivers. It joins the Indus a few kilometres above Mithankot.
Out of its total length of 1,450 km, it flows for 1,050 km in Indian territory.
Which of the following statements is are correct about the Manimekhalai?
It is also called as Odyssey of Tamil Poetry.
It was written by a famous Buddhist grain merchant Sattanar.
Its story is a sequel to Silapaddikaram
All the above given options are correct.
Sangam text "Manimekhalai":
Manimekalai by the poet Chithalai Chathanar, is one of The Five Great Epics of Tamil Literature according to later Tamil literary tradition.
Manimekalai Manimekhalai is a sequel to Silapaddikaram written by Settalai Sattanar, considered the 'Odyssus of Tamil poetry' and a poem in 30 cantos.
Its story is a sequel to another of the Five Great Epics, Silappatikaram, and tells the story of the daughter of Kovalan and Madhavi, who became a Buddhist Bikkuni.
The heroine of that epic is Manimekhalai. At the end of the story she finally comes to the town of Kanchi where she feeds the poor from her inexhaustible vessel (akshaya-pAtram).
This work 'Manimekhalai' is slanted towards Buddhistic religion.
Accordingly, the heroine reaches salvation after getting the initiation from a Buddhistic Guru. But the incident of feeding the poor from an 'akshaya-pAtram' is a traditional story of the Goddess Kamakshi of Kanchi from age-old times.
Even in the Sangam Age (of Tamil) there was a woman by name 'KAmak-kaNNi' which is nothing but the Sanskrit 'KamAkshi'.
The Manimekhalai is the only extant Tamil Buddhist literary work of what once was an extensive literature. The reason for its survival is probably its status as the sequel to the Silapathikaram or Silappadhikaram.
Consider the following statements about the secretarial staff of Parliament:
The Indian Constitution does not have a mention regarding the secretarial staff of Parliament.
President appoints the persons to the secretarial staff of both the houses.
The secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Article 98 of the Constitution provides that each house shall have its own secretarial staff.
His appointment is made by the presiding officer of the House.
Secretarial staff for each house of Parliament:
Article 98 of the Constitution provides that:
Each House of Parliament has separate secretarial staff of its own. Provided that nothing in this clause shall be construed as preventing the creation of posts common to both Houses of Parliament.
Parliament may by law regulate the recruitment, and the conditions of service of persons appointed, to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament.
The President may, after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the People or the Chairman of the Council of States, as the case may be, make rules regulating the recruitment, and the conditions of service of persons appointed, to the secretarial staff of the House of the People or the Council of States, and any rules so made shall have effect subject to the provisions of any law made under the said clause.
He is a permanent officer and is appointed by the presiding officer of the House.
The secretariat of each House is headed by a secretary-general who holds the rank of the Cabinet Secretary to the Government of India.
The Secretary-General, in turn, is assisted by senior functionaries at the level of Secretary, Additional Secretary, Joint Secretary and other officers and staff of the Secretariat.
The secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
The former Presidents are also entitled for secretarial staff.
Services provided by the Secretariat staff:
The Legislative, Financial Committee, Executive and Administrative Service (LAFEAS)
The Library, Research, Reference, Documentation and Information Service (LARRDIS)
The Verbatim Reporting Service
The Private Secretaries & Stenographers Service
Printing and Publications Service
The Simultaneous Interpretation Service
Parliament Security Service and Housekeeping Wing
Editorial and Translation Service
The Clerical Service
The Messengers Service
Consider the following statements regarding India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):
It is a public sector company run by a chief executive officer.
The core banking network of post offices is more than that of State Bank of India (SBI).
India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):
The India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has been incorporated as a public sector company under the Department of Posts with 100% GOI equity.
IPPB is offering Savings account up to a balance of Rs 1 Lakh, along with digitally enabled payments and remittance services of all kinds between individuals.
In due course, IPPB will also provide current accounts and access to third party financial services like insurance, mutual funds, pension, credit products, forex, and more.
IPPB will be headquartered in New Delhi and plans to launch 650 branches across the country by the next year.
These 650 branches will be linked to rural post offices. [India has 154,000 post offices, of which 139,000 are rural post offices]
The total corpus of the payments bank is of Rs 800 crore, which will have Rs 400-crore equity and Rs 400-crore grant.
Its services will be available across the country through these 650 payments bank branches, linked post offices and alternative channels, riding on modern technology including mobiles, ATMs and simple digital payments.
The payments bank, which will be run by a Chief Executive Officer, would be professionally managed and there would be a representation from various other government departments including the Department of Posts, Department of Expenditure, etc.
At present, the core banking network of post offices is more than that of the country's largest lender State Bank of India (SBI).
To increase banking connectivity, especially in rural areas, the government plans to open branches of India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) all across the country.
The government will open over 650 branches of the payments bank, which will have access points across 1.5 lakh locations across India.
Most of these access points — over 1.3 lakh — will be opened in rural areas.
The initiative will certainly help in bringing untouched rural areas under the banking system, say industry experts.
Which of the following committee/s of parliament has/have its Chairman necessarily appointed/ elected from amongst the members of the Lok Sabha only?
a) Estimate Committee
b) Public Accounts Committee
c) Committee on Public	Sector Undertaking
Committees have its Chairman necessarily appointed/ elected from amongst the members of the Lok Sabha only:
About Public Account Committee:
As per the conventions, the Chairman of PAC is selected invariably from the opposition but he is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members.
This committee can be described as the most effective tool of surveillance over the executive by the parliament, if it functions in a bi-partisan and efficient manner.
The committee consists of 22 members of parliament (15 members from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha) without any right to a minister to be member on it.
The chairman of the committee is conventionally a leader of opposition party.
The term of office of the members is one year. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Since 1967, the chairman of the committee is selected from the opposition. Earlier, it was headed by a member of the ruling party.
Its chief function is to examine the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) after it is laid in the Parliament.
Article 151 of the Indian constitution requires the President to lay this report before each House of the Parliament.
Estimates Committee:
Estimates committed does not contain any members of Rajya Sabha (all the 30 members belong to Lok Sabha), so it has to have its Chairman from Lok Sabha.
The first Estimates Committee was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister.
Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only.
The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it.
The term of office is one year. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.
The function of the committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest 'economies' in public expenditure.
Committee on Public Undertakings:
The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. Thus, the members of the committee who are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.
Originally, it had 15 members (10 from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in 1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha).
The members of this committee are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
The term of office of the members is one year. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
Which of the below given is/are the contributions by Feroz Shah Tughlaq?
He founded several cities around Delhi.
He is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India.
He easily won Bengal, Gujarat and Warangal.
Feroz Shah Tughlaq faced many rebellions, including in Bengal, Gujarat and Warangal.
Feroz Shah Tughlaq and his contributions:
Sultan Firuz Shah Tughlaq in 14th century was a Turkic Muslim ruler of the Tughlaq Dynasty, who reigned over the Sultanate of Delhi from 1351 to 1388.
His father's name was Rajab (the younger brother of Ghazi Malik) who had the title Sipahsalar.
He succeeded his cousin Muhammad bin Tughlaq following the latter's death at Thatta in Sindh, where Muhammad bin Tughlaq had gone in pursuit of Taghi the ruler of Gujarat.
For the first time in the history of Delhi Sultanate, a situation was confronted wherein nobody was ready to accept the reins of power. With much difficulty, the camp followers convinced Firuz to accept the responsibility. In fact, Khwaja Jahan, the Wazir of Muhammad bin Tughlaq had placed a small boy on throne claiming him to the son of Muhammad bin Tughlaq, who meekly surrendered afterwards.
Due to widespread unrest, his realm was much smaller than Muhammad's.
Tughlaq was forced by rebellions to concede virtual independence to Bengal and other provinces.
At his succession, after the death of Muhammad Tughlaq, he faced many rebellions, including in Bengal, Gujarat and Warangal.
Nonetheless he worked to improve the infrastructure of the empire building canals, rest-houses and hospitals, creating and refurbishing reservoirs and digging wells.
He founded several cities around Delhi, including Jaunpur, Ferozpur, Hissar, Firuzabad, Fatehabad.
Most of Firozabad was destroyed as subsequent rulers dismantled its buildings and reused the spolia as building materials, and the rest was subsumed as New Delhi grew.
Tughlaq instituted economic policies to increase the material welfare of his people. Many rest houses (sarai), gardens and tombs (Tughluq tombs) were built.
A number of madrasas were opened to encourage literacy. He set up hospitals for the free treatment of the poor and encouraged physicians in the development of Unani medicine.
He provided money for the marriage of girls belonging to poor families under the department of Diwan-i-khairat.
He commissioned many public buildings in Delhi. He built Firoz Shah Palace Complex at Hisar in 1354 CE, over 300 villages and dug five major canals, including the renovation of Prithviraj Chauhan era Western Yamuna Canal, for irrigation bringing more land under cultivation for growing grain and fruit.
He established a charity department which looked into the welfare of widows, orphans and needy children.
He set up an employment bureau to provide job opportunities to unemployed people.
He built rest houses for travellers and hospitals which provided free medical services to the poor and needy.
Two economic policies of Firoz Shah Tughlaq were: The farmers in the Doab region did not have to repay the state loans taken by them during the famine. He also reduced land revenues.
He built various canals, tanks and dug wells. These measures helped in the improvement of agricultural production.
Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of Money Multiplier?
a) A certain percentage of total deposits the commercial banks are required to maintain in the form of cash reserve with the central bank.
b) The amount of money that banks generate with each dollar of reserves.
c) The amount of currency that people hold as a proportion of aggregate deposits.
d) It is a measurement of a bank's available capital expressed as a percentage of a bank's risk-weighted credit exposures.
Cash Reserve Ratio – A certain percentage of total deposits the commercial banks are required to maintain in the form of cash reserve with the central bank.
Currency Deposit Ratio – The amount of currency that people hold as a proportion of aggregate deposits.
Capital Adequacy Ratio – It is a measurement of a bank's available capital expressed as a percentage of a bank's risk-weighted credit exposures.
Money Multiplier:
A money multiplier is one of the various closely related ratios of commercial bank money to central bank money (the ratio of deposits to reserves in the banking system) under a fractional-reserve banking system.
It is the amount of money that banks generate with each dollar of reserves.
It measures an estimate of the maximum amount of commercial bank money that can be created, given a certain amount of central bank money.
It means that in a fractional-reserve banking system, the total amount of loans that commercial banks are allowed to extend (the commercial bank money that they can legally create) is equal to an amount which is a multiple of the amount of reserves.
This multiple is the reciprocal of the reserve ratio, and it is an economic multiplier.
It explains the increase in the amount of cash in circulation generated by the banks' ability to lend money out of their depositors' funds.
When a bank makes a loan, it 'creates' money because the loan becomes a new deposit from which the borrower can withdraw cash to spend.
This money-creating power is based on the fractional reserve system under which banks are required to keep at hand only a portion (between 10 to 15 percent, typically 12 percent) of the depositors' funds. The rest may be converted into loans, thereby increasing the available cash by a factor that is a multiple of the initial deposit.
If banks lend out close to the maximum allowed by their reserves, then the inequality becomes an approximate equality, and commercial bank money is central bank money times the multiplier. If banks instead lend less than the maximum, accumulating excess reserves, then commercial bank money will be less than central bank money times the theoretical multiplier.
The money multiplier is the ratio of deposits to reserves in the banking system.
Consider the following statements regarding Strategic Trade Authorization (STA):
The NATO has designated India as Strategic Trade Authorization-1 (STA-1) country.
Strategic Trade Authorization covers the export of chemical or biological weapons.
It provides easy access for India to latest defence technologies from the US.
The United States has designated India as Strategic Trade Authorization-1 (STA-1) country.
Strategic Trade Authorisation (STA):
STA allows for license exception with regards to exports from the US.
This type of US government authorisation allows a certain item to be exported under defined conditions without a transaction-specific license.
Currently there are 36 countries on STA-1 list.
India is only South Asian country to be on the list. Till recently, India was classified as an STA-2 country along with seven others.
Other Asian countries designated as STA-1 are Japan and South Korea.
Items eligible for export to STA-1 nations:
Those under control for national security,
chemical or biological weapons,
nuclear non-proliferation,
regional stability,
crime control
The categories also include electronics, lasers and sensors, information security, computers and electronics, navigation, telecommunications, aerospace, etc.
How will this status benefit India?
STA-1 provides India with greater supply chain efficiency, both for defence, and for other high-tech products.
The status eases export controls for high technology product sales to India, granting it the same access as NATO allies — Australia, Japan and South Korea.
India's inclusion is beneficial mostly for the purposes of increasing the speed of sale of high-tech defence and non-defence products that are otherwise subjected to strict controls and licensing.
Now, India can get easy access to latest defence technologies, with the reduction of the number of licenses needed for exports from the US.
According to analysts, it is also a boost for the foundational Communications, Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA).
A person not belonging to legislative assembly can be made and continue to serve the Chief Minister only if:
a) During President's Rule
b) On the discretionary powers of Governor
c) He become member of legislative assembly within 6 months
A person need not prove his majority in the assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister, the Governor may first appoint him as Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority.
Chief Minister:
The Chief Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive) of the parliamentary system of government in India.
The position of the Chief Minister at the state level is analogous to the position of prime minister at the Centre.
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
The governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister. But, when no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. In such a situation, the governor usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the assembly as the Chief Minister and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
The governor may have to exercise his individual judgement in the selection and appointed of the Chief Minister when the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor. However, on the death of a Chief Minister, the ruling party usually elects a new leader and the governor has no choice but to appoint him as Chief Minister.
The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period.
A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for six months, within which time, he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be the Chief Minister.
The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed, and he holds office during the pleasure of the governor. But he cannot be dismissed by the governor as long as he enjoys the majority support in the legislative assembly.
When a Chief Minister loses the confidence of the assembly, he must resign, or the governor can dismiss him.
The salary and allowances of the Chief Minister are determined by the state legislature.
Powers and functions:
The governor appoints only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister.
He allocates and reshuffles the portfolios among ministers.
He can ask a minister to resign or advise the governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.
He presides over the meetings of the council of ministers and influences its decisions.
He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the ministers.
He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office. Since the Chief Minister is the head of the council of ministers, his resignation or death automatically dissolves the council of ministers. The resignation or death of any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy, which the Chief Minister may or may not like to fill.
He is the principal channel of communication between the governor and the council of ministers.
He advises the governor with regard to the appointment of important officials like advocate general, chairman and members of the state public service commission, state election commissioner, and so on.
He advises the governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.
He can recommend the dissolution of the legislative assembly to the governor at any time.
He announces the government policies on the floor of the house.
He is the chairman of the State Planning Board.
He acts as a vice-chairman of the concerned zonal council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.
He is a member of the Inter-State Council and the National Development Council, both headed by the prime minister.
He is the chief spokesman of the state government.
He is the crisis manager-in-chief at the political level during emergencies.
As a leader of the state, he meets various sections of the people and receives memoranda from them regarding their problems, and so on.
He is the political head of the services.
In the context of Contract Farming, consider the following statements:
It provides an assured market for a farmer's produce at their doorsteps.
NABARD developed a special refinance package for contract farming arrangements only within AEZs.
It makes small scale farming competitive.
Contract Farming reduces the risk of production, price and marketing costs.
Contract farming:
Contract farming is an agricultural production carried out according to an agreement between a buyer and farmers, which establishes conditions for the production and marketing of a farm product or products.
Typically, the farmer agrees to provide agreed quantities of a specific agricultural product.
These should meet the quality standards of the purchaser and be supplied at the time determined by the purchaser.
In turn, the buyer commits to purchase the product and, in some cases, to support production through, for example, the supply of farm inputs, land preparation and the provision of technical advice.
Critics of contract farming tend to emphasize the inequality of the relationship and the stronger position of sponsors with respect to that of growers.
Contract farming is viewed as essentially benefiting sponsors by enabling them to obtain cheap labour and to transfer risks to growers.
However, this view contrasts with the increasing attention that contract farming is receiving in many countries, as evidence indicates that it represents a way of reducing uncertainty for both parties. Furthermore, it will inevitably prove difficult to maintain a relationship where benefits are unfairly distributed between sponsors and growers.
In India, contract farming is regulated under the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
The department of agriculture and farmers' welfare has now come out with a draft model contract farming Act, 2018.
The model contract farming Act proposes a state-level agency, the Contract Farming (Development and Facilitation) Authority, which would put contract farming outside the ambit of the APMC.
The model Act requires the sponsor and the farmers to register the contracts with a registering and agreement recording committee.
Producer/farmer
Makes small scale farming competitive – small farmers can access technology, credit, marketing channels and information while lowering transaction costs
Assured market for their produce at their doorsteps, reducing marketing and transaction costs
Contract farming can open up new markets which would otherwise be unavailable to small farmers.
It also ensures higher production of better quality, financial support in cash and /or kind and technical guidance to the farmers.
In case of agri-processing level, it ensures consistent supply of agricultural produce with quality, at right time and lesser cost.
Agri-based firms
Optimally utilize their installed capacity, infrastructure and manpower, and respond to food safety and quality concerns of the consumers.
Make direct private investment in agricultural activities.
The price fixation is done by the negotiation between the producers and firms.
The farmers enter into contract production with an assured price under term and conditions.
Contract farming arrangements are often criticized for being biased in favour of firms or large farmers, while exploiting the poor bargaining power of small farmers.
Problems faced by growers like undue quality cut on produce by firms, delayed deliveries at the factory, delayed payments, low price and pest attack on the contract crop which raised the cost of production.
Contracting agreements are often verbal or informal in nature, and even written contracts often do not provide the legal protection in India that may be observed in other countries. Lack of enforceability of contractual provisions can result in breach of contracts by either party.
Single Buyer – Multiple Sellers (Monopsony).
Adverse gender effects – Women have less access to contract farming than men.
NABARD's Initiatives in contract farming
NABARD developed a special refinance package for contract farming arrangements (within and outside AEZs) aimed at promoting increased production of commercial crops and creation of marketing avenues for the farmers. The various initiatives undertaken by NABARD in this direction are:
Financial Interventions
Special Refinance package for financing farmers for contract farming in AEZs
100% refinance to disbursements made by CBs, SCBs, RRBs and select SCARDBs (having net NPA less than 5%)
Term facility for repayments (3 years)
Fixation of higher scale of finance for crops under contract farming.
Extension of refinance scheme for financing farmers for contract farming in AEZs to contract farming outside AEZs besides coverage of medicinal and aromatic plants.
Extension of Refinance scheme for contract farming under Automatic Refinance Facility.
Estuaries are typically classified according to their geomorphological features or to water-circulation patterns. In this context, which of the following can also be called estuaries?
Port can be understood as a place, where loading and unloading of ships and boats are done.
The term port is often juxtaposed with harbour, which implies a place along a coast where ships or boats can take shelter if the atmospheric conditions are not well for sailing.
While ports are man-made, harbours can be natural or man-made.
Estuaries:
An estuary is a partially enclosed coastal body of brackish water with one or more rivers or streams flowing into it, and with a free connection to the open sea.
It is the place where fresh and saltwater mix.
Estuaries and their surrounding wetlands are bodies of water usually found where rivers meet the sea. Estuaries are home to unique plant and animal communities that have adapted to brackish water—a mixture of fresh water draining from the land and salty seawater.
However, there are also several types of entirely freshwater ecosystems that have many similar characteristics to the traditional brackish estuaries. For example, along the Great Lakes, river water with very different chemical and physical characteristics mixes with lake water in coastal wetlands that are affected by tides and storms just like estuaries along the oceanic coasts. These freshwater estuaries also provide many of the ecosystem services and functions that brackish estuaries do, such as serving as natural filters for runoff and providing nursery grounds for many species of birds, fish, and other animals.
Estuaries are among the most productive ecosystems in the world. Many animals rely on estuaries for food, places to breed, and migration stopovers.
They are delicate ecosystems, subject both to marine influences—such as tides, waves, and the influx of saline water—and to riverine influences—such as flows of fresh water and sediment.
The mixing of sea water and fresh water provide high levels of nutrients both in the water column and in sediment, making estuaries among the most productive natural habitats in the world.
Most existing estuaries formed during the Holocene epoch with the flooding of river-eroded or glacially scoured valleys when the sea level began to rise about 10,000–12,000 years ago.
Estuaries are typically classified according to their geomorphological features or to water-circulation patterns. They can have many different names, such as bays, harbours, lagoons, inlets, or sounds, although some of these water bodies do not strictly meet the above definition of an estuary and may be fully saline.
The banks of many estuaries are amongst the most heavily populated areas of the world, with about 60% of the world's population living along estuaries and the coast.
As a result, many estuaries suffer degradation from a variety of factors including: sedimentation from soil erosion from deforestation, overgrazing, and other poor farming practices; overfishing; drainage and filling of wetlands; eutrophication due to excessive nutrients from sewage and animal wastes; pollutants including heavy metals, polychlorinated biphenyls, radionuclides and hydrocarbons from sewage inputs; and diking or damming for flood control or water diversion.
Scutoid is related with:
Solid geometric shape
Exo planets
A scutoid is a solid geometric shape identified while studying epithelial cells.
Scutoid:
Scientists have identified new shape called scutoid while studying epithelial cells.
A scutoid is a solid geometric shape, like a cube or a pyramid, which had not been described until now.
The epithelial cells adopt this form when the tissue curves, giving it a more stable structure. It could be said that they look like 'twisted prisms'.
These new and beautiful shapes are the solution that nature has found to fold and curve the epithelia, which lines the outer surfaces of organs.
Scutoid shape has five sides on one end and six on the other and a triangular surface on one of its longer edges and it is completely new to geometry and resembles beetle's scutellum (shield-like structure) from top-down view.
This discovery will help to explain how cells arrange themselves in tightly packed three-dimensional (3D) structures that serve as protective barriers in body.
It will contribute to the field of tissue engineering specifically development of artificial organs.
It will be useful in other fields beyond biology, such as mathematics and engineering.
Which of the following doctrine refers that functions shall be carried out closest to citizens at the smallest unit of governance possible, delegated upwards only when the local unit cannot perform the task?
a) Doctrine of Solidarity
b) Doctrine of Subsidiarity
c) Doctrine of Proportionality
d) Doctrine of Participation
Doctrine of subsidiarity:
Subsidiarity is an organizing principle that matters ought to be handled by the smallest, lowest or least centralized competent authority. Political decisions should be taken at a local level if possible, rather than by a central authority.
It is the idea that a central authority should have a subsidiary function, performing only those tasks which cannot be performed effectively at a more immediate or local level.
It has appeal and application for any reform aimed at efficiency, empowerment and welfare. In my view, it has two critical standards.
The first is that all decisions shall be taken closest to the citizen. In the case of companies, it is customer in place of the citizen.
The second is that the state, or a higher governance mechanism or organisation, shall mainly help/assist the lower ones to accomplish their goals. It shall restrain itself from interfering, unless there is a contingency, risk, or threat to larger good. It implies that the higher organisation must know how to build capacity, empower, guide, monitor and oversee without invasion. At the same time, it shall be vigilant, to be able to intervene, override or take charge under special conditions. But must quickly attain order and retract.
It can be useful in redesigning Centre-State relations and relations between the state and local bodies, in such a way that there is true empowerment.
The doctrine of subsidiary in context of proclamation of National Emergency:
The doctrine of subsidiary conflicts with the passion for centralization and bureaucratic characteristic of the Welfare State.
During the proclamation of national emergency (Article 352), the centre becomes all powerful and the states go into the total control of the Centre.
It converts the federal structure of the constitution into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution.
This kind of transformation of the political system from federal during normal times to unitary during Emergency is a unique feature of the Indian Constitution.
Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
The president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
A proclamation of national emergency may be applicable to the entire country or only a part of it.
While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric of the Centre–state relations undergoes a basic change.
In normal times, the Centre can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters. However, during a national emergency, the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on 'any' matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the Centre, though they are not suspended.
The normal distribution of the legislative powers between the Centre and states is suspended, though the state Legislatures are not suspended.
During a national emergency, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the State List. Although the legislative power of a state legislature is not suspended, it becomes subject to the overriding power of the Parliament.
During the national emergency operation, the President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states.
The life of the Lok Sabha may be extended beyond its normal term (five years) by a law of Parliament for one year at a time (for any length of time).
Articles 358 (suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19) and Article 359 (the suspension of other Fundamental Rights except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21) describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights.
Thus, the proclamation of National Emergency is opposed to the doctrine of subsidiarity.
The weighted average of a country's currency in relation to an index or basket of other major currencies is called –
a) Nominal Effective Exchange Rate
b) Nominal Exchange Rate
c) Real Effective Exchange Rate
d) Real Exchange Rate
Nominal Effective Exchange Rate – It is an unadjusted weighted average rate at which one country's currency exchanges for a basket of multiple foreign currencies.
Nominal Exchange Rate – It is the rate at which currency can be exchanged.
Real Exchange Rate – It tells how much the goods and services in the domestic country can be exchanged for the goods and services in a foreign country.
Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER):
Real effective exchange rate is a weighted average of nominal exchange rates adjusted for relative price differential between the domestic and foreign countries, relates to the purchasing power parity (PPP) hypothesis.
It is the weighted average of a country's currency in relation to an index or basket of other major currencies, adjusted for the effects of inflation.
The weights are determined by comparing the relative trade balance of a country's currency against each country within the index.
The real effective exchange rate takes price differential and inflation into account and, therefore, is said to be a better indicator of the competitiveness of the country in terms of exchange rates.
It is used to determine an individual country's currency value relative to the other major currencies in the index, such as the U.S. dollar, Japanese yen and the euro.
In India, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) complies with REER indices. The first one is based on six country's trade-based weights and the second on 36-currencies' export and trade-based weights. The indices are also a better reflection of the position of a currency in comparison with the countries in which India has large export and trade interest. The base is taken as 100 and currently the base year is 2004-2005.
A rise in the level of index indicates appreciation of currency and vice-versa.
These currency indices are undoubtedly a useful tool for research, analysis and policy-making but may not entirely drive business and investment decisions.
These may help policymakers in deciding whether to intervene in the currency market or not, but will not necessarily change much for those importers, exporters and investors having interest in one or two currencies.
NASA's TESS mission will:
Look for planets orbiting the brightest stars in Earth's sky.
Help astronomers better understand the structure of solar systems.
Provide insights into how our solar system formed.
NASA's TESS mission:
The Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) is a NASA mission that will look for planets orbiting the brightest stars in Earth's sky.
TESS was launched on April 18th with the help of a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket which sent the satellite into an elliptical orbit around Earth.
TESS is designed to carry out first spaceborne all-sky transiting exoplanet survey.
It is equipped with four wide-angle telescopes and associated charge-coupled device (CCD) detectors.
The mission will monitor at least 200,000 stars for signs of exoplanets, ranging from Earth-sized rocky worlds to huge gas giant planets.
TESS, however, will focus on stars that are 30 to 100 times brighter than those Kepler examined. This will help astronomers better understand the structure of solar systems outside of our Earth and provide insights into how our own solar system formed.
TESS will occupy a never-before-used orbit high above Earth. The elliptical orbit, called P/2, is exactly half of the moon's orbital period; this means that TESS will orbit Earth every 13.7 days.
Its closest point to Earth (67,000 miles or 108,000 kilometres) is about triple the distance of geosynchronous orbit, where most communications satellites operate.
It will provide prime targets for further characterization by James Webb Space Telescope, as well as other large ground-based and space-based telescopes of the future.
Its first observations will be transmitted back to Earth at some point in August, after which it will continue to send in new information for the next two years, at least.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with reference to appointment of ad hoc judges in Supreme Court of India?
a) He enjoys all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a judge of the Supreme Court.
b) There can be ad hoc judges for a temporary period due to lack of quorum of the permanent judges.
c) The President can appoint an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
d) The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
Appointment of ad hoc judges in Supreme Court of India:
The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period.
The ad hoc judges are appointed when there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court.
The CJI can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
It is the duty of the ad hoc judge to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court, in priority to other duties of his office.
He enjoys all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges (and discharges the duties) of a judge of the Supreme Court.
With reference to Sterilisation, consider the below statements:
It is a form of monetary action in which a central bank seeks to limit the effect of inflows and outflows of capital on the money supply.
It is used to manipulate the value of one domestic currency relative to another and is initiated in the foreign exchange market.
It refers to the process by which the RBI takes away money from the banking system to neutralise the fresh money that enters the system.
a) 1 and 2 only.
Sterilisation done by RBI:
Sterilization is a form of monetary action in which a central bank seeks to limit the effect of inflows and outflows of capital on the money supply.
It most frequently involves the purchase or sale of financial assets by a central bank and is designed to offset the effect of foreign exchange intervention.
The sterilization process is used to manipulate the value of one domestic currency relative to another and is initiated in the foreign exchange market.
Suppose the RBI decides to buy US dollars (USD) from the market. Now, the money held by the RBI does not form part of the banking system. So, if the RBI releases rupees from its coffers to buy dollars, the money supply in the banking system increases. That can be a problem.
But It is "too much money chasing too few goods". Thus, if there is no accompanying increase in output, the excess supply of money will "chase" the same quantity of goods. And because the system has more money, many will be willing to pay a higher price for the same goods, leading to inflation.
More money in the banking system means higher bond prices because banks will have more money, they will buy more bonds.
And that will push up bond prices. Since bonds carry an inverse price-yield relationship, higher bond prices mean lower yields.
The problem is that lower yields will force the RBI to cut interest rates further.
If the RBI does not want to cut rates, it will reduce (sterilise) liquidity that causes the yields to fall. It will do so by selling the government bonds that it holds in its books. This means that sterilisation is possible only to the extent that the RBI holds government bonds in its portfolio.
This process of selling government bonds to reduce liquidity is part of its open market operations.
Concessional Financing Scheme (CFS) is:
Operated by EXIM Bank of India.
Supporting all infrastructure projects in India.
A scheme to generate demand for material and machinery in India.
It supports Indian Entities bidding for strategically important infrastructure projects abroad.
Concessional Financing Scheme (CFS):
The Union Cabinet has approved the first extension of Concessional Financing Scheme (CFS) for another five years from 2018 to 2023 to support Indian Entities bidding for strategically important infrastructure projects abroad.
Under the CFS, the Govt. of India has been supporting Indian Entities bidding for strategically important infrastructure projects abroad since 2015-16.
Under the Scheme, MEA selects the specific projects keeping in view strategic interest of India and sends the same to Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).
The strategic importance of a project to deserve financing under this Scheme, is decided, on a case to case basis, by a Committee chaired by Secretary, DEA.
Once approved by the Committee, DEA issues a formal letter to EXIM Bank conveying approval for financing of the project under CFS.
The Scheme is presently being operated through the Export-Import Bank of India, which raises resources from the market to provide concessional finance.
Government of India (GoI) provides counter guarantee and interest equalization support of 2% to the EXIM Bank.
Under the Scheme, EXIM Bank extends credit at a rate not exceeding LIBOR (avg. of six months) + 100 bps. The repayment of the loan is guaranteed by the foreign govt.
Major Impact:
Prior to the introduction of CFS, Indian entities were not able to bid for large projects abroad since the cost of financing was very high for them and bidders from other countries such as China, Japan, Europe and US were able to provide credit at superior terms, i.e., lower interest rate and longer tenures which works to the advantage of bidders from those countries.
Also, by having projects of strategic interest to India executed by Indian entities, the CFS enables India to generate substantial backward linkage induced jobs, demand for material and machinery in India and also a lot of goodwill for India.
From the following statements, which are the goals of MGNREGA Act, 2005?
Growth engine for sustainable development of an agricultural economy.
Strengthen the natural resource base of rural livelihood and create durable assets in rural areas.
Recharging rural economy to a transformative empowerment process of democracy.
MGNREGA, 2005
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), also known as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MNREGS) is Indian legislation enacted on August 25, 2005.
It provides a legal guarantee for one hundred days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work at the statutory minimum wage.
The Ministry of Rural Development (MRD), Govt of India is monitoring the entire implementation of this scheme in association with state governments.
Objectives of the Act:
The objective of the Act is to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
Goals of the Act:
Strong social safety net for the vulnerable groups by providing a fall-back employment source, when other employment alternatives are scarce or inadequate.
Growth engine for sustainable development of an agricultural economy through the process of providing employment on works that address causes of chronic poverty such as drought, deforestation and soil erosion.
The Act seeks to strengthen the natural resource base of rural livelihood and create durable assets in rural areas.
Effectively implemented, MGNREGA has the potential to transform the geography of poverty.
Empowerment of rural poor through the processes of a rights-based Law.
New ways of doing business, as a model of governance reform anchored on the principles of transparency and grass root democracy.
Thus, MGNREGA fosters conditions for inclusive growth ranging from basic wage security and recharging rural economy to a transformative empowerment process of democracy.
Salient Features of the Act:
Adult members of a rural household, willing to do unskilled manual work, may apply for registration in writing or orally to the local Gram Panchayat.
The Gram Panchayat after due verification will issue a Job Card. The Job Card will bear the photograph of all adult members of the household willing to work under MGNREGA and is free of cost.
The Job Card should be issued within 15 days of application.
A Job Card holder may submit a written application for employment to the Gram Panchayat, stating the time and duration for which work is sought. The minimum days of employment have to be at least fourteen.
The Gram Panchayat will issue a dated receipt of the written application for employment, against which the guarantee of providing employment within 15 days operates.
Employment will be given within 15 days of application for work, if it is not then daily unemployment allowance as per the Act, has to be paid liability of payment of unemployment allowance is of the States.
Work should ordinarily be provided within 5 km radius of the village. In case work is provided beyond 5 km, extra wages of 10% are payable to meet additional transportation and living expenses.
Wages are to be paid according to the Minimum Wages Act 1948 for agricultural labourers in the State, unless the Centre notifies a wage rate which will not be less than Rs. 60/ per day. Equal wages will be provided to both men and women.
Wages are to be paid according to piece rate or daily rate. Disbursement of wages has to be done on weekly basis and not beyond a fortnight in any case.
At least one-third beneficiaries shall be women who have registered and requested work under the scheme.
Work site facilities such as crèche, drinking water, shade have to be provided.
The shelf of projects for a village will be recommended by the gram sabha and approved by the Zilla panchayat.
At least 50% of works will be allotted to Gram Panchayats for execution.
Permissible works predominantly include water and soil conservation, afforestation and land development works.
A 60:40 wage and material ratio has to be maintained. No contractors and machinery is allowed.
The Central Government bears the 100 percent wage cost of unskilled manual labour and 75 percent of the material cost including the wages of skilled and semi-skilled workers.
Social Audit has to be done by the Gram Sabha.
Grievance redressal mechanisms have to be put in place for ensuring a responsive implementation process.
All accounts and records relating to the Scheme should be available for public scrutiny.
Which of the following subjects are included in the Union list?
Cultivation and manufacture of opium
Sanctioning of cinematograph films for exhibition
Stock exchanges and futures markets
Public health and sanitation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
c) 2, 3 and 5 only
Weights & Measures is under Concurrent List while Public health and sanitation is under State List.
Subjects included in the Union list:
The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule.
The Union List consists of 100 subjects (originally 97).
Subjects covered are:
[Note: Not try to cram, just go through it]
Defence of India
Naval, military and air forces; any other armed forces of the Union
Deployment of any armed force of the Union in any state in aid of the civil power
Cantonment areas and local self-government in such areas
Naval, military and air force works
Arms, firearms, ammunition, and explosives
Atomic energy and mineral resources necessary for its production
Defence industries
Central Bureau of Intelligence and investigation
Preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs, or the security of India
Diplomatic, consular and trade representation
United Nations Organisation
International conferences, associations and other bodies
Treaties, agreements and conventions with foreign countries
Foreign jurisdiction
Citizenship, naturalisation and aliens
Pilgrimages to places outside India
Piracies and crimes committed on the high seas or in the air and offences against the law of nations.
Shipping and navigation on national waterways
Maritime shipping and navigation
Lighthouses for the safety of shipping and aircraft
Major ports
Port quarantine, seaman and marine hospitals
Airways; aircraft and air navigation; provision of aerodromes
Carriage of passengers and goods by railway, sea, air or national waterways
Posts and telegraphs; telephones, wireless, broadcasting and other like forms of communication
Property of the Union
Courts of wards for the estates of rulers of Indian states
Public debt of the Union
Currency, coinage and legal tender; foreign exchange
Foreign loans
Post office savings bank
Lotteries organised by the Union or state
Trade and commerce with foreign countries
Inter-state trade and commerce
Trading corporations, including banking, insurance and financial
Corporations but not including co-operative societies
Corporations, whether trading or not, with objects not confined to one state
Bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes and other like instruments
Patents, inventions and designs; copyright; trade-marks and merchandise marks
Establishment of standards of weight and measure
Establishment of standards of quality for goods to be exported out of India or transported from one state to another
Industries, the control of which by the Union is in the public interest
Oil fields and mineral oil resources; petroleum and petroleum products; other liquids and substances which are inflammable
Regulation of mines and mineral development in the public interest
Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oil fields
Regulation and development of inter-state rivers and river valleys
Fishing and fisheries beyond territorial waters
Manufacture, supply and distribution of salt by Union and other agencies
Cultivation and manufacture of opium and its export
Industrial disputes concerning Union employees
National Library, the Indian Museum, the Imperial War Museum, the Victoria Memorial and the Indian War Memorial, and any other like institution of national importance
Benaras Hindu University, the Aligarh Muslim University and the Delhi University; any other institution of national importance
Scientific or technical education institutions of national importance
Union agencies and institutions for training, research or detection of crime
Standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical institutions
Ancient and historical monuments and records, and archaeological sites and remains of national importance
The Survey of India, the Geological, Botanical, Zoological and Anthropological Surveys of India; Meteorological organisations
Union Public Services; All-India Services; Union Public Service Commission
Union pensions
Elections to Parliament, the legislatures of states and the offices of President and Vice-President; the Election Commission
Salaries and allowances of members and presiding officers of Parliament
Powers, privileges and immunities of each House of Parliament and of the members and the committees of each House
Emoluments and service conditions of the president, governors, the ministers for the Union and the Comptroller and Auditor General
Audit of the accounts of the Union and of the states
Organisation, jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court
Organisation of the high courts
Extension of the jurisdiction of a high court to any union territory
Extension of the powers and jurisdiction of members of a police force belonging to any state to any area outside that state
Inter-state migration; inter-state quarantine
Taxes on income other than agricultural income
Duties of customs including export duties
Duties of excise on tobacco and other goods except alcoholic liquors for human consumption and opium, Indian hamp and other narcotic drugs and narcotics, but including medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol
Taxes on the capital value of the assets (exclusive of agricultural land) of individuals and companies; taxes on the capital of companies
Estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land
Duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land
Terminal taxes on goods or passengers, carried by railway, sea or air; taxes on railway fares and freights
Taxes other than stamp duties on transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets
Rates of stamp duty in respect of bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes, bills of lading, letters of credit, policies of insurance, transfer of shares, debentures, proxies and receipts
Taxes on the sale or purchase of newspapers and on advertisements published therein
Taxes on the sale or purchase of goods other than newspapers, where such sale or purchase takes place in the course of inter-state trade or commerce
Taxes on the consignment of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce
Taxes on services
Offences against laws with respect to any of the matters in this list
Inquiries, surveys and statistics for the purpose of any of the matters in this list
Jurisdiction and powers of all courts (except the Supreme Court) with respect to any of the matters in this list; admiralty jurisdiction
Fees in respect of any of the matters in this list, but not including fees taken in any court
Any other matter not enumerated in List II or List III including any tax not mentioned in either of those lists
Pigovian Tax is aimed to –
a) Discourage the inflow of hot money or short-term speculative capital because of the tax burden.
b) Exploitation of poor people and minorities in the form of price mark-ups on goods and services.
c) Discourage activities that impose a net cost of production onto third parties and society as a whole.
Tobin Tax – It discourages the inflow of hot money or short-term speculative capital because of the tax burden.
Ghetto Tax – It is exploitation of poor people and minorities in the form of price mark-ups on goods and services.
Pigovian tax:
A Pigovian tax is a tax placed on any good which creates negative externalities.
It is a liquid waste (or effluent) fee which is assessed against private individuals or businesses for engaging in activities that create adverse side effects.
Adverse side effects are those costs which are not included as a part of the product's market price.
It is named after the economist Arthur Pigou who developed the concept of externalities in the 1920s.
The aim of a Pigovian tax is to make the price of the good equal to the social marginal cost and create a more socially efficient allocation of resources.
It is meant to discourage activities that impose a net cost of production onto third parties and society as a whole.
The tax is intended to correct an undesirable or inefficient market outcome and does so by being set equal to the social cost of the negative externalities.
In the presence of negative externalities, the social cost of a market activity is not covered by the private cost of the activity. In such a case, the market outcome is not efficient and may lead to over-consumption of the product.
Often-cited examples of such externalities are environmental pollution and increased public healthcare costs associated with tobacco and sugary drink consumption.
Ghetto tax:
A ghetto tax is a term used to describe how people with low incomes pay higher prices for goods and services, particularly those living in poverty-stricken areas.
It is not literally a tax, but it is a situation in which people pay higher costs for equivalent goods or services simply because they are poor or live in a poor area.
It is the exploitation of poor people and minorities in the form of price mark-ups on goods and services.
For example, higher rates for insurance, usury in loan rates, and "vending machine" level prices from the corner store.
The problem of ghetto taxes is closely associated with mobility. A study showed that higher prices might be prevalent in some neighbourhoods, but people with access to a car would have more access to affordable goods and services elsewhere, whilst those without a car would bear the brunt of higher local prices.
Union Ministry of Culture has launched the 'Seva Bhoj Yojna'. Under the scheme:
Financial assistance will be provided on the purchase of specific food items for free distribution.
Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and Interstate GST will be refunded.
The religious and charitable institutions are eligible only after registering under Darpan portal of Union Ministry of Culture.
All eligible religious and charitable institutions must first register with Darpan portal of NITI Aayog.
Seva Bhoj Yojna:
Union Ministry of Culture has launched the new scheme namely 'Seva Bhoj Yojna' with a total outlay of Rs. 325.00 Crores for Financial Years 2018-19 and 2019-20.
The new scheme will provide financial assistance on purchase of specific food items by Charitable Religious Institutions (CRIs) for free distribution among people.
Under this scheme, Centre's share of Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and Interstate GST charged on raw food materials purchased by the religious institutions will be refunded.
The scheme seeks to reimburse the central government's share of Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST) on purchase of raw items such as ghee, edible oil, atta, maida, rava, flour, rice pulses, sugar and jaggery, which go into preparation of food/prasad/langar/bhandara offered free of cost by religious institutions.
The main objective of the scheme is to lessen the financial burden of such charitable religious institutions, which provide free of cost without any discrimination to the general public and devotees.
Beneficiaries:
The charitable religious institutions including temples, gurudwara, mosque, church, dharmik ashram, dargah, monasteries, which fulfill the following criteria are eligible for the grant:
The institutions that have been in existence for at least five years before applying for financial assistance/grant.
The institutions that serve free food to at least 5000 people in a month.
The institutions covered under Section 10 (23BBA) of the Income Tax Act or those registered as Society under Societies Registration Act (XXI of 1860) or as a Public Trust under any law for the time being in force of statuary religious bodies constituted under any Act or institutions registered under Section 12AA of Income Tax Act.
All eligible religious and charitable institutions first must register with Darpan portal of NITI Aayog and get Unique ID generated by it.
Thereafter, they shall enroll themselves in CSMS Portal on the Ministry of Culture's website in prescribed format. The applications will be examined by committee constituted for purpose.
On basis of recommendation of committee, competent authority in Ministry of Culture will register these institutions for reimbursing claim of CGST and Central Government share of IGST paid on mentioned specific items.
In context to underemployment, which of the following statements is/ are true?
Workers who are currently looking for jobs
A graduate in Engineering working as a Retail Sales Clerk
Part-time workers preferring full-time hours
Underemployment:
Underemployment is a situation in which workers are employed below their education or skill level, or their availability.
It is a measure of employment and labour utilization in the economy that looks at how well the labour force is being utilized in terms of skills, experience and availability to work.
Underemployment occurs when one does not have a job that is full-time or that reflects his or her training and financial needs.
It is not the same as unemployment, which is the percentage of employable people in a country's workforce who are over the age of 16 and who have either lost their jobs or unsuccessfully sought jobs in the last month and are actively seeking work.
The formula for underemployment rate is: Number of underemployed / Total labour force
Labour that falls under the underemployment classification includes those workers who are highly skilled but working in low paying or low skill jobs and part-time workers who would prefer to be full-time.
Underemployed workers can be divided into several categories. The most common type of underemployed workers is listed below:
Skilled workers in low-paying jobs
Skilled workers in low-skill jobs
While underemployed workers are not necessarily unemployed workers, there is a certain category of unemployed worker that falls under the heading of underemployed. Unemployed workers who are currently looking for jobs may also be considered to be underemployed.
It is often difficult to get an accurate measurement of underemployment since some underemployed workers are visible, which means their underemployment status is easily identifiable, and other workers are considered invisible because their underemployment status is not easily identifiable. For example, those in the part-time worker category may be considered visible, while those workers whose skills or education are under-utilized are considered to be invisible.
Consider the following factors in context of Indian Judiciary:
Charged expenditure of High Courts and Supreme Court on consolidated fund of India
Appointment and removal of judges
Conduct of judges cannot be discussed in parliament except during removal of judges.
Which of the above given factors provide for the independence of Indian Judiciary:
All of the above given factors ensure independence of Indian Judiciary.
In the context of Indian Judiciary, following factors provide for its independence:
Separation of Judiciary from the Executive and Legislature:
Judiciary in India is neither a branch of the executive nor a hand-maid of the legislature. It has an independent identity under the Constitution. It enjoys full autonomy in its working.
Appointment of Judges by the President:
The method of appointment of judges has been very sound. The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President. While appointing other judges the Supreme Court, the President consults the Chief Justice of India. In case of the appointment of the Chief Justice, the practice of appointing the senior most judges to this high office is followed. In the case of subordinate courts, the Judges are recruited through competitive examinations.
Long Tenure:
Judges of Supreme Court remain in office till they attain the age of 65 years. This age limit ensures a long tenure for the Judges.
High Qualifications:
The Constitution prescribes specific and high qualifications for the Judges. A person eligible for judgeship has to be an Indian citizen, must have experience as a Judge of a High Court for at least five years or as an advocate of High Court for at least ten years or be a distinguished jurist. Thus, only persons with high qualifications and experience are appointed as judges of the courts.
Security of Service:
The Judges in India enjoy good security of service. No judge can be removed from the office except by a very difficult process of impeachment.
Every Judge of the Supreme Court gets a high salary. Besides this, each judge is entitled to free residential accommodation, medical allowance and several other perks. Salaries and allowances of judges cannot be reduced during their terms of office, except in the situation of a financial emergency in the country.
Prohibition of Practice after Retirement:
A Judge of the Supreme Court is prohibited to practice before any court or authority in India.
Power to Punish the Contempt of Court:
Courts in India have been given the power to punish all cases involving a contempt of court. The Supreme Court can punish any institution or person who is found guilty of contempt of court.
Vast Jurisdiction and the Power of Judicial Review:
Judiciary in India enjoys a vast jurisdiction. It acts as the guardian interpreter of the Constitution, the protector of Fundamental Rights of the people and the arbiter of disputes between the Union and the States. It has the power to determine the constitutional validity of every law.
It can reject any law in case it is found to be against the Constitution of India. Indian Judiciary is in no way subordinate to the other two organs of the government. Its decisions bind all. Such a powerful position helps the judiciary to maintain its independence. Thus the Constitution of India incorporates all such features as are considered essential for the preservation of independence of Judiciary.
Which one of the following groups of birds belongs to Nandankanan Zoological Park?
a) Eastern Rosella, Orang-Utan, Mugger and Finches
b) Open-billed Stork, Grey heron, Indian Pangolin and Gharials
c) Grey heron, Spotted Munia, Cinereous Vulture and Eastern Rosella
d) Goose, Hornbill, Open-billed Stork and Skink
Nandankanan Zoological Park:
Nandankanan Zoological Park is a zoo and botanical garden in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, India.
It was established in 1960 and was opened to the public in 1979 and became the first zoo in India to join World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA) in 2009.
It is located near the capital city, Bhubaneswar, in the environs of the Chandaka forest, and includes the Kanjia lake.
Nandankana is the first zoo in India with a white tiger safari. White tigers were born to normal coloured parents in 1980, a unique event in the world.
It is the first zoo in the country where endangered Gharials were born in captivity in 1980.
Nandankanan is the only zoo in India with the credit of having Patas monkey (Erythrocebus patas), Eastern Rosella (Platycercus eximus) and Open-billed Stork (Anastomus oscitans). Besides, it has the glory among the 2 zoos in India having Orang-Utan (others in Kanpur Zoological Park, Uttar Pradesh), Indian Pangolin (others in Jhargram Zoo, West Bengal), Spotted Munia (Others in Sayajibaug Zoo, Gujarat) and Burmese Python (others in Calcutta Snake Park, West Bengal).
It is among the three zoos of India having Green-winged Macaws and Cinereous Vulture.
The other significant breeding success of Nandankanan includes Indian pangolin (1971), Mouse deer (1972), Malayan Giant squirrel (1974), Sloth bear (1978), Mugger (1982), Himalayan Black bear (1982), Lion-tailed Macaque (1983), Brow-antlered deer (1984), Salt water crocodile (1985), Indian porcupine (1986), White necked stork (1986), Caiman crocodile (1990), Water monitor lizard (1996), Swamp deer (1998), Chimpanzee (1999), Grey heron (2000) and Siamese crocodile (2010), ratel 2012 and many free living animals including Open billed storks.
Consider the following statements with regards to Oxytocin:
It is a brain neurotransmitter.
It boosts milk production in milch animals and make vegetables look bigger and fresher.
It is a life-saving and a Schedule H drug.
Its manufacture without the licence is a Non-Cognisable offence in India.
The manufacture and sale of Oxytocin without a licence is a cognisable offence in India.
Oxytocin:
Oxytocin is a hormone that is made in the brain, in the hypothalamus. It is transported to, and secreted by, the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain.
It acts both as a hormone and as a brain neurotransmitter.
The release of oxytocin by the pituitary gland acts to regulate two female reproductive functions: Childbirth and Breast-feeding.
Oxytocin has also been dubbed the hug hormone, cuddle chemical, moral molecule, and the bliss hormone due to its effects on behaviour, including its role in love and in female reproductive biological functions in reproduction.
The Drug Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) has recently recommended to the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that the ban on the retail sale of the life-saving drug, oxytocin, may be lifted.
The drug is used by dairy owners and farmers to boost milk production and make vegetables look bigger and fresher. But, it was found that indiscriminate use of Oxytocin in milch animals and by farmers was causing irreversible hormone damage.
Despite it being a Schedule H drug, it is impossible to prevent its manufacturing at registered private factories.
Implications to human health are humongous, from reproductive complications to hormonal imbalances.
One major reason for such blatant misuse of this drug is the absence of robust veterinary services in India.
In March 2016, the Himachal Pradesh High Court directed the Central government to "consider the feasibility of restricting the manufacture of Oxytocin only in public sector companies and also restricting and limiting the manufacture by companies to whom licences have already been granted."
The manufacture and sale of Oxytocin without a licence is a cognisable.
A mismatch between the skills that unemployed workers possess, and the skills required to perform a job is called as –
a) Cyclical Unemployment

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