1. In a case of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, the lymphoblasts demonstrated strong localized positivity with acid phosphatase.
The cells were positive for CD2 and CD7 and negative for CD19, CD24, and CD20. These blasts are most likely:
(A) Lymphoid stem cells
(B) T lymphoblasts
(C) B lymphoblasts
(D) Undifferentiated blasts
2. A patient with anemia of chronic disease is most likely to have which set of laboratory test results?
(A) MCV decreased, serum iron decreased, serum ferritin decreased, TIBC and % saturation decreased
(B) MCV normal, serum iron increased, serum ferritin decreased, TIBC and % saturation decreased
(C) MCV normal, serum iron decreased, serum ferritin increased, TIBC and % saturation decreased
(D) MCV decreased, serum iron increased, serum ferritin increased, TIBC and % saturation increased
3. An increase in the reticulocyte count is accompanied by :
(A) Suppressed maturation of normoblasts in the bone marrow
(B) A shift to the left in the oxygen dissociation curve
(C) Polychromasia on the Romanovsky stained blood smear
(D) An increase in direct serum bilirubin
4. A 8-year-old boy presents with intramuscular hematomas and recurrent hemarthroses. Laboratory tests reveal normal platelet count bleeding time, and PT, but the PTT is prolonged. This condition most likely results from an abnormality involving :
(A) Chromosome 8
(B) Chromosome 14
(C) Chromosome 21
(D) X Chromosome
5. A patient is suspected of having hemolytic anemia. Numerous spherocytes are present in the blood smear, and the reticulocyte count is 18%. What test should be done to determine whether this is an autoimmune process ?
(A) Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)
(B) Osmotic Fragility Test
(D) Serum Bilirubin
6. A joint aspiration is performed on a 60 year old lady with painful swollen elbow, and a sample is sent to the laboratory. A cytocentrifuged slide is examined with polarized light shows needlelike intracellular and extracellular crystals which exhibit negative birefringence compensator. These crystals would be best identified as which of the following ?
(A) Calcium pyrophosphate
(C) Monosodium urate
7. A thoracentesis is performed on a large pleural effusion yielded 1.2 L of thick, yellow
fluid. Laboratory studies show a total protein of 4.5 g/dL (serum=6 g/dL) lactate
dehydrogenase 40 U/L (serum = 50 u/L) and total leukocyte count of 20,000/microlitre
with 90% segmented neutrophils. Which statement fits most well for this fluid ?
(A) This is an exudate
(B) This is a transudate
(C) This is a chylous fluid
(D) This is unlikely to be of an infectious etiology
8. Hematuria with dysmorphic RBCs is a hallmark of :
(A) Renal Tuberculosis
(B) Acute Glomerulonephritis
(C) Chronic Renal Failure
(D) Renal Calculi
9. Microalbuminuria is defined as level of albumin in urine at range of :
(A) 100-150 mg/day
(B) 150-200 mg/day
(C) 30-300 mg/day
(D) 300-600 mg/day
10. A 51-year-old man is admitted following an episode of hematemesis in which he remembers vomiting about a liter of dark red bloody vomitus into the. He is found to have orthostatic hypotension. His Hgb is 6.2 g/dL, Hct 18.8%, MCV 74 fL, platelet count 90,000/uL, and WBC count 10,100/uL. His prothrombin time is 12.1 seconds and partial thromboplastin time 26.2 seconds. Which of the following blood products is most appropriate for this man ?
(A) Whole blood
(C) Fresh frozen plasma
(D) Packed RBC’s
11. A recipient developed a sudden drop in blood pressure following transfusion, though he remained afebrile. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be found ?
(B) Graft-versus-host disease
(C) Penicillin allergy
(D) IgA deficiency
12. One unit of FRESH FROZEN PLASMA prepared from whole blood contains __________ ml of plasma.
13. Coombs control cell consists of :
(A) Type O positive cells coated with Anti D
(B) Type O negative cells coated with Anti D
(C) Type A positive cells coated with Anti D
(D) Type A negative cells coated with Anti D
14. Nucleic acid Amplification Test for HIV was instituted in donor testing protocols to :
(A) Identify donors with late stage HIV who lack antibodies
(B) Confirm the presence of anti HIV in asymptomatic HIV INFECTED DONORS
(C) Reduce window period to detect virus earlier than other available tests
(D) Detect antibodies to specific viral proteins including p24
15. Gauge of needle ideal for blood transfusion generally is :
(A) 21 G
(B) 25 G
(C) 16 G
(D) 10 G
16. Which of the following is an example of Iron Hematoxylin ?
(A) Mayers Hematoxylin
(B) Harris’s Hematoxylin
(C) Weigerts Hematoxylin
(D) Gills Hematoxylin
17. Which of the following microtome is better for cutting large specimens for museum ?
(A) Rotary microtome
(B) Rocking microtome
(C) Sledge microtome
(D) Sliding microtome
18. Which of the following is a routinely used clearing agent in histopathology ?
(D) Cedarwood oil
19. Which of the following is not a slide adhesive ?
(B) Mayer’s egg albumin
(C) Chrome alum-gelatin
20. Which of the following is not an aqueous mounting media ?
(A) Glycerine jelly
(B) Apathy’s media
(C) Fructose syrup
(D) Canada balsam
21. Which among the following is the best stain for demonstration of Barr Body?
(A) Papanicolaou stain
(B) Orcein stain
(C) Hematoxylin & Eosin stain
(D) Shorr stain
22. Which of the following EA (Eosin Azure) is preferred for non-gynaecological smears ?
(A) EA 50
(B) EA 36
(C) EA 65
(D) EA 25
23. Which of the following fixative is not useful in a Millipore Filter (membrane filter) ?
(A) 95% Ethyl alcohol
(B) 80% Isopropyl alcohol
(C) 100% Methanol
(D) 80% Propanol
24. Which among the following is the most suitable fixative for gastric washings ?
(A) 50% Ethanol
(B) 70% Ethanol
(C) 95% Ethanol
(D) None of the above
25. Carnoy’s fixative do not contain __________.
(A) 95% Ethanol
(B) Glacial acetic acid
1 B 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 A 6 C 7 A 8 B 9 C
10 D 11 D 12 C 13 A 14 C 15 C 16 C 17 C 18 B
19 A 20 D 21 B 22 C 23 C 24 C 25 D