This question is less complicated than it appears. There are several Hebrew idioms and customs bound up in the language involved.
Two Greek words are translated “redeem” (“exagerazo” and “lutroo”) with almost exactly equivalent meanings. Both speak of Christ redeeming sinners as slaves (Luke 1:68, 24:21) by paying a ransom (Matt 20:28, Mark ...
This question is part of a larger "problem" in the Bible. But first, let me observe that the nouns in Deut 16:22 (אֶמַצֵּבָה matstsebah = sacred pillar) and Joshua 4:8 (אֶבֶן eben = a stone) are quite different. Thus, what Joshua did in Josh 4:8 was not forbidden by Deut 16:22.
The commandment forbidding the making of idols, etc, (Ex 20:4) ...
No contradiction. - The desecrated Pillar (made by man) in [Deuteronomy 16:22] is not a natural uncut אֶבֶן Even/"Stone" (made by Elohim) found in [Joshua 4:8].
Yehoshua did not use tools on the memorial stones described [Joshua 4:8]. Even all The-Stones הָֽאֲבָנִים "Ha-Avanim" were natural gifts from the riverbed of הַיַּרְדֵּן Ha-Yarden ...
Deut 5:3 says this:
He did not make this covenant with our fathers, but with all of us who
are alive here today.
Note that this text says several things about the covenant:
it was NOT made with the fathers/ancestors
the ancestors were doubtless those present when the covenant of the 10 commandments (Deut 4:10, Ex 34:28, see also Deut 10:4) was originally ...
“In the above text its not clear which fathers Moses was referring to” -[snip]
I would argue that it is clear - crystal clear. Via context. This verse, and the preceding verses are about Covenants. And the only other covenant God made with them - the nation - (Israel), was with their patriarch - Abraham.
GEN 17:2 I will now act on my covenant between me and ...