[FOM] Why inclusive disjunction?
laureanoluna at yahoo.es
Thu Jan 11 09:36:51 EST 2007
Michel Herbert wrote:
>> Can anyone provide a principled reason for why
>logicians choose to
>> interpret "or" as inclusive disjunction?
>Is it simply because (modern) logic was designed by
>the inclusive or is more standard (or somehow more
>mathematics, like in "a smaller or equal to b", and
>in the "union" (which
>includes the intersection)?
>(But then, why would it be more "natural" in
I think that it is natural to choose the shorter
expression to convey the lesser quantity of
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