|MadSci Network: Physics|
i would take an unmagnetize iron nail and rub it with a magnet to make it become magnetize. After rubbing an iron nail it will become magnetize.After the nail has been magnetize with north and south end it doesn't have equal amount of attraction or repulsion on both end. The method that i choose to measure this is through a compass. One reading would show that either the attraction is stronger than the replusion or vice versa. WHy is this?
Re: why does a magnetize nail don't have an equal amount on both ends of nail.
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