Sounds like the likely timeline is COVID infection --> demand ischemia, MI. Given the situation, it sounds like the transfer hospital and receiving hospital appropriately triaged the issues and treated the most life-threatening issue (the acute MI) first.This patient had a lot of risk factors for getting very sick with any infection, not just COVID. Going without clopidogrel likely also helped precipitate the MI, though no one will be able to say to what extent.I don't think that initiating COVID treatment at time of presentation would have made much difference.
Given the timeline Ive described, would it be reasonable to assume the relationship between Covid and these complications?Would it be reasonable to assume the relationship between MI and demand ischemia?Interestingly, the transfer hospital did not initiate treatment for COVID-19. Could this have changed the trajectory of the case?