I am verifying the answers generated by an automatic system to the following question: what is right to set off payments
Suggested answer: The situation where a bank has to report that it has lent a large sum to a borrower (and is therefore exposed, because there is a risk that the borrower might default thereby leading to the loss of the bank's or its depositors' money) is thus replaced (where the bank has taken security over shares or securities of the borrower) with an exposure of the money lent minus the value of the security taken.
Should I validate this answer?
